2024-2025 Flight Crew Recency Requirements Self-Paced Study Program

From: Transport Canada

2024-2025 Flight Crew Recency Requirements Self-Paced Study Program
(PDF, 1.70 MB)

 

 

The completed copy is to be retained by the pilot.

Note: This page can’t be saved while you work. You can choose to use the PDF above or fill in the fields below and once complete, print your final exam as a hard copy or as a PDF (through your web browser functions).

Refer to paragraph 421.05(2)(d) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), which is designed for pilots to update their knowledge on subjects such as human factors, meteorology, flight planning and navigation, and aviation regulations.

Completion of this questionnaire satisfies the 24-month recurrent training program requirements of 
CARs 401.05(2)(a). It is to be retained by the pilot. 

All pilots are to answer questions 1 to 49. In addition:

  • Aeroplane pilots are to answer questions 50 to 59;
  • helicopter pilots are to answer questions 60 to 64; 
  • glider pilots are to answer questions 65 to 68; 
  • balloon pilots are to answer questions 69 to 73; and
  • ultra-light aeroplane pilots, gyroplane, weight-shift control, powered-parachute are to answer questions 74 to 88, as applicable. 

References are listed after each question. Some references may be available only in English. Amendments to these publications may result in changes to answers and/or references. Many answers may be found in the following sources: 

GEN–General

1. What is meant by the following ATC instruction “Cleared for the option” for an arriving aircraft?

Reference: TC AIM - RAC 4.4.3

Answer 1:

It allows the pilot to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop-and-go or full-stop landing, at their discretion.

 

2. Although drones can fly much higher, what is their maximum altitude normally permitted in uncontrolled airspace?

Reference: CAR 901.25, TC AIM-RPA 3.2.13

Answer 2:

400 ft AGL or 100 ft above the tallest obstruction within 200 ft laterally.

 

AGA–Aerodromes

3. What does the symbol 

  mean beside hours of operations in the CFS, for an aerodrome?

Ref.: CFS GENERAL - Aerodromes and Facilities Legend – Annotations & Codes

Answer 3:

It mean the hours of operations are changing during daylight saving time. Meaning that if you are subtracting -5h to obtain local time, when daylight saving time is in effect, it will be -4h. In other words, one hour earlier than shown.

 

 

4. At St-Frédéric (CSZ4), QC both runways 05 and 23 have displaced thresholds. What are the expected threats to explain the displaced thresholds?

Reference: CFS, TC AIM AGA 3.5, Flight Training Manual 4th edition p. 28

Answer 4:

Threats are: obstacles, runway 23 up 2%, road crossing threshold of 05, ARCAL lightning at night for runway lights, and for winter operations there is limited winter maintenance. To ensure that a safe clearance from these obstacles is maintained, it is necessary to displace the threshold upwind from the adjacent runway end where the approach slope cannot be raised. Natural and human-made obstacles penetrate the obstacle limitation surfaces of the approach paths to runways.

 

5. On what frequency would you make radio calls for St-Frédéric, QC and activate the ARCAL runway lights?

Reference: TC AIM RAC 4.5.1, TP 11541

Answer 5:

UNICOM 122.8; 121.7.

 

6. Referring to the St-Frédéric, QC CFS, the caution section warns of a fur farm approximately 14 NM SW of the aerodrome. What does it imply for you if you are joining the circuit at 2000’ ASL from the Southwest in May?

Reference: TC AIM RAC 1.10.1

Answer 6:

Avoid overflying these farms below 2000 ft AGL. Due to high ground elevation, and fur farm, it is advisable to wait until closer to the aerodrome before descending to circuit altitude.

 

COM–Communications

7. What is the recommended procedure for phone use if you suffer a communication failure?

Reference: TC AIM COM 1.7

Answer 7:

PHONE USE DURING A RADIO COMMUNICATIONS FAILURE
In the event of an in-flight radio communications failure, and only after normal communications failure procedures have been followed, the pilot-in-command may attempt to contact the appropriate NAV CANADA air traffic service (ATS) unit by means of a conventional cell or satellite phone. Before placing the call, transponder-equipped aircraft should squawk Code 7600. Public switched telephone network (PSTN) numbers to be used in the event of a communication failure are published in the CFS.

 

MET–Meteorology

8. What are the hours of service and the telephone number of your Flight Information Center (FIC)?

Reference: TC AIM – MET 1.3.1

Answer 8:

All FICs provide 24-hr service. FIC telephone numbers are provided in the CFS. Pilots dialing the common toll-free number 1-866-WXBRIEF (992-7433) will automatically be routed to the FIC serving the area from which the call is being made.

 

9. On a GFA what weather conditions define the term ‘Marginal VFR?’

Reference: TC AIM MET 4.9

Answer 9:

 Ceilings between 1 000 ft and 3 000 ft AGL and/or visibilities between 3 and 5 SM

 

10. You are reading a GFA and notice that it describes fog in a particular area as PTCHY. What does this mean? How does it specifically describe the fog?

Reference: TC AIM MET 4.11

Answer 10:

Patchy, 26 to 50% of the defined area is affected by the fog.

 

11. State four (4) differences between human observations and AWOS observations.

Reference: TC AIM-MET 8.5.4, table 8.3

Answer 11:

As per Comparison Table.

 

12. You are reading a GFA and come across a term that you are not familiar with.  What resources can you use to find the correct meaning?

References: MANAB (A new window will open), TC AIM - MET 15.0 Abbreviations, Nav Canada Weather Services Guide (A new window will open), CFS

Answer 12:

MANAB, TC AIM – MET 15.0 Abbreviations, Nav Canada Weather Services Guide, Call your FIC at 1-866-WXBRIEF and ask a Flight Service Specialist

 

13. In the METAR below, what does 250V310 mean?

METAR CYOW 271800Z 29013G20KT 250V310 15SM BKN060 22/11 A2990 RMK SC6 SLP128 DENSITY ALT 1400FT=

Reference: Aviation Weather Services Guide (A new window will open)

Answer 13:

winds variable 250 to 310

 

14. In the TAF below, at what time are the light rain showers forecast to end? 

TAF

CYOW

TAF CYOW 271740Z

2718/2818 28015G25KT P6SM BKN050

FM280000 27010KT P6SM −SHRA OVC050

FM280500 31008KT P6SM −SHRA OVC020

FM280900 31008KT P6SM BKN025 BKN100

FM281100 28010KT P6SM FEW030

FM281700 25010KT P6SM SCT050

RMK NXT FCST BY 272100Z=

 

Reference: Aviation Weather Services Guide (A new window will open)

Answer 14:

0900Z

 

15. Using the TAF below, what is the forecasted weather conditions for the duration of the flight with a departure at 1700Z on a 2-hour local flight?

  1. The lowest cloud layer expected is 2000 AGL
  2. Winds will shift from 100° to 270° 
  3. The ceiling on arrival will be 5000 AGL
  4. Both a and b

TAF CYVR 061140Z

0612/0718 22010KT P6SM FEW020 SCT050 SCT200 TEMPO 0612/0618 SCT020 BKN050 BKN200 BECMG 0613/0615 10008KT FM061800 27008KT P6SM SCT040 BKN140 FM070900 30008KT P6SM SCT025 BKN050 BKN080 RMK NXT FCST BY 061500Z=

Reference: Aviation Weather Services Guide (A new window will open)

Answer 15:

d

 

Given the GFA below answer the next couple of questions. 

16. From the GFA above, What does the boxed 15 mean in this picture? 

Reference: Aviation Weather Services Guide (A new window will open) 

Answer 16:

Centre of the High pressure is moving at 15 KT.

 

17. From the GFA above, What does this picture mean?

Reference: MANAB (A new window will open)

Answer 17:

Local 1/2 statute mile fog ceiling 200 feet above ground level, cloud top 1500 feet above sea level over and near Lake Superior.

 

Given the GFA below, answer question 19.

18. Interpret the following information below from the GFA above.

Reference : Aviation Weather Services Guide and MANAB and RCAF Weather Manual (TP9352) Chapter 9 Aircraft Icing (A new window will open) 

Answer 18:

Patchy moderate mixed type of ice formation (rime and clear) between 3000 and 6000 feet ASL and local moderate mixed type of ice formation (rime and clear) from surface to 3000 feet ASL due to local freezing drizzle.

 

RAC–Rules of the Air and Air Traffic Services

19. Name four or more items that need to be communicated to the responsible person when using a flight itinerary.

Reference: TC AIM-RAC 3.5.2 & 3.14.2, CAR 602.75, CFS, C2 Planning.

Answer 19:

See Canadian Flight Supplement CFS C2 Planning section for all 27 items. 

 

20. In addition to a serviceable 2-way radio, what minimum equipment is required to enter VFR in Class C Airspace?

Reference: TC AIM RAC section 2.8.3 and COM 8.0

Answer 20:

A transponder (Mode C).

 

Controlled, and uncontrolled airspace offer different traffic information and conflict resolution services. Based on this statement, answer questions 22 through 25.

21. In class C airspace, ATC separation is provided between aircraft operating under . Conflict resolution between VFR aircraft can be provided .

Reference: TC AIM-RAC 2.8.3. 

Answer 21:

all; IFR; upon request.

 

22. In class D airspace, is ATC separation provided?  Equipment and workload permitting, will conflict resolution be provided between VFR and IFR aircraft? 

Ref.: TC AIM-RAC 2.8.4

Answer 22:

Only between IFR traffic. Yes.

 

23. In class E airspace, ATC separation is provided only between aircraft operating under . 

Ref.: TC AIM-RAC 2.8.5

Answer 23:

IFR.

 

24. What is something to be aware of regarding air traffic controllers providing services in Class E airspace?

Ref.: TC AIM-RAC 2.8.3, 2.8.4, 2.8.5.

Answer 24:

They are responsible for larger volumes of airspace than those providing services in Class C or D airspace. As a result, there is a higher potential that workload and equipment limitations could affect the provision of traffic information, including potentially discontinuing this service without notification.

 

25. No person shall operate an aircraft in the airspace below feet AGL within NM of the limits of a forest fire area, or as described in a NOTAM.

Reference: TC AIM RAC 2.9.2

Answer 25:

3000; 5

 

26. Approaching an uncontrolled aerodrome with an Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF), when should you make radio calls?

Reference: TC AIM-RAC 4.5.7, TP 11541, CAR 602.101 (VFR), CAR 602.104 (IFR).

Answer 26:
  1. Before entering the area, where circumstances permit, at least 5 minutes prior to entering the area.
  2. Joining the circuit.
  3. On the downwind leg, if applicable.
  4. Established on final.
  5. Clear of the surface on which the aircraft has landed.
 

27. Given the following Kingston aerodrome CFS extract, can you depart without a radio?

Reference: TC  AIM-RAC 4.5.8.1, CAR 602.98.

Answer 27:

Yes, provided the FSS is in operation at the time proposed for the operation, and prior arrangements have been made.

 

28. At an uncontrolled aerodrome, does IFR traffic have priority over VFR traffic?

Reference TC AIM-RAC 1.8 and 4.5.2, CAR 602.19

Answer 28:

No, many prefer to give commercial IFR and larger type of aircraft priority. However, this practice is a personal airmanship courtesy, and it should be noted that these aircraft do not establish any priority over other aircraft operating VFR at that aerodrome. Right of way rules as per CAR 602.19 shall be used. TC AIM RAC 1.8 – Collision Avoidance – Right of Way

 

SAR – Search and Rescue

29. Raising a portable ELT from ground level to 2.44 m (8 feet) increases its range by %. 

Reference: TC AIM-SAR 3.6

Answer 29:

20 to 40

 

MAP–Aeronautical Charts & Publications

 

30. Explain numbers (1) to (10) in the NOTAM format description above  

Reference: TC AIM-MAP 3.2

Answer 30:

 

  1. Aeronautical fixed service (AFS) message priority andaddressing (recipients)
  2. Date and time (DDHHMM) and addressing (originator)
  3. NOTAM Series, number, and year of issuance
  4. NOTAM type (New, Replacement, Cancellation
  5. Item Q): Coded line for custom briefings
  6. Item A): Location indicator(s)
  7. Item B): Start date and time
  8. Item C): End date and time
  9. Item D): Schedule
  10. Item E): NOTAM text
 

31. Given the following TAF:

TAF CYMJ 121740Z 1218/1306 14008KT P6SM BKN050 OVC080 TEMPO 1218/1303 P6SM −SHRA BKN030 OVC050

FM130300 14008KT P6SM BKN040 TEMPO 1303/1306 P6SM −SHRA BKN020 OVC040

RMK NXT FCST BY 130000Z

What is the lowest ceiling forecasted?

Ref.: TC AIM-MET 7.1

Answer 31:

 2000 ft AGL.

 

32. Given the following METAR:

METAR CYYZ 121600Z VRB02KT 15SM SCT190 BKN250 11/00 A2986 RMK AS3CI3 SLP118

SCT stands for scattered. At what altitude are those clouds, how much of the sky in oktas does it represent, and is it considered a ceiling?

Ref.: TC AIM-MET 8.1

Answer 32:

19,000 ft AGL; 3 to 4 oktas; no.

 

33. Given this information:

METAR CYBC 131200Z AUTO 33004KT 9SM CLR 20/10 A2991 RMK SLP130

 

Before your flight, you reviewed the GFA with no icing noted for your aerodrome or in the vicinity, but you see the METAR above. Is carburetor icing more likely to happen in flight?

Ref.: Flight Training Manual exercise three, Figure 2-4 Carburetor Icing Graph. 

TC AIM-AIR 2.3 including Figure 2.2 – Carburetor Icing. TSB report A22P0061.

Answer 33:

Yes, as it falls within the moderate icing with cruise power, and serious icing with descent power.

 

Given the following GFA:

 

34. Please write in plan text what is communicated in the purple circle.

Ref.: MANAB (A new window will open) 

Answer 34:

Local 3 statute miles visibility, light snow, and rain over or near water.

 

35. In the following METAR:

METAR CYND 131200Z 08009KT 15SM BKN067 BKN088 00/M04 A2988 RMK AC6AC1 VIRGA SLP123

What does the report of “VIRGA” at the aerodrome indicates?

Ref.: From the Ground Up (30th edition), page 148 Low Level Wind Shear.

Answer 35:

Clues to the possibility of downburst activity but there is no way to accurately predict its occurrence.

 

LRA–Licensing, Registration & Airworthiness

36. A 55-year-old commercial licensed pilot visited their Aviation Medical Examiner on February 2, 2024. Until when can they exercise the privileges of their private pilot licence?

Ref: TC AIM-LRA 1.9 Medical Fitness for Permits and Licences, 

1.91 Medical Validity Periods, and Table 1.8.

Answer 36:

Until March 1, 2026. Unless otherwise indicated on their medical.

 

37. Who is responsible for reporting defects found on an aircraft, and how should this be recorded?

Ref: TC AIM-LRA 5.6.1 & CAR 605.94, CAR 605 Schedule I.

Answer 37:

CAR 605.94 requires the pilot-in-command to enter the particulars of any abnormal occurrence to which the aircraft has been subjected, as well as the particulars of any defect in any part of the aircraft or its equipment that becomes apparent during flight, in the journey log as set out in CAR 605, Schedule I.

 

38. In addition to the particulars of any defect in any part of the aircraft or its equipment that becomes apparent during flight operations, pilots must also enter the particulars of any to which the aircraft has been subjected into the aircraft’s records.

Ref.: CAR 605 Schedule I, TC AIM-LRA 5.6.1

Answer 38:

abnormal occurrence 

 

AIR Airmanship

39. What is the best advice to pilots and/or passengers who are suffering from head colds, sore throat, or allergies?

Ref.: TC AIM-AIR 3.6.

Answer 39:

To wait for the inflammation to subside before flying.

 

40. MOGAS is (more/less) susceptible to the formation of carburetor icing.

Ref.: TC AIM-AIR 2.3

Answer 40:

More, Due to its higher volatility, MOGAS is more susceptible to the formation of carburetor icing. In severe cases, ice may form at OATs up to 20°C higher than with AVGAS

 

41. Due to the presence of rain on the windscreen a hilltop or peak ahead may appear (higher/lower) than it actually is.

Ref.: TC AIM-AIR 2.5

Answer 41:

lower, A hilltop or peak 1/2 NM ahead of an aircraft could appear to be approximately 260 ft lower, (230 ft lower at 1/2 SM) than it is

 

42. Active pilots that have donated blood should wait hours before flying.

Ref.: TC AIM-AIR 3.12

Answer 42:

48 hours

 

43. What does it mean when ATC tells you to take off or taxi “at your discretion”?

Ref.: Nav Canada VFR phraseology guide

Answer 43:

You are responsible for safety and separation. ATC has given you the instruction with the intent that you comply as soon as safely able and may be instructing surrounding traffic based on this assumption. Any delay in taxiing, taking off or landing should be reported to ATC.

 

44. The , , and of the approach and landing will be directly related to whether or not the prior to, or shortly after, establishing the aircraft on the final approach leg. 

Ref.: ASL Issue 1/2020 Stabilized approaches in VFR (A new window will open)

Answer 44:

The quality, smoothness, and safety of the approach and landing will be directly related to whether or not the aircraft was stabilized prior to, or shortly after, establishing the aircraft on the final approach leg.

 

RPA - Remotely Piloted Aircraft

45. Where can I find info on Remotely Pilot Aircraft information and regulation?

Reference: CAR Part IX, TC AIM-RPA 

Answer 45:

CARs subpart 900 and TC AIM in section RPA

 

Electronic Flight Bag/Maps/VTA/VNC/CFA

46. What is the common frequency areas (CFA) frequency for Montreal-North and Montreal-South? 

Reference: CFS - Planning – Areas With Discrete Air-to-Air Frequencies – Montreal VTA

Answer 46:

The frequency for CFA for Montreal-North is 122.1 MHz and the frequency for CFA Montreal-South is 122.575 MHz.

 

Canada Flight Supplement (CFS)

47. During an early morning flight at 1300Z how should a pilot approach the traffic pattern to join the circuit for a full stop landing? 

Reference: CFS and TC AIM-RAC 4.5.2

Answer 47:

For aerodromes within an MF area when airport advisory information is not available: Aircraft should normally approach the traffic circuit from the upwind side.

 

The next two questions do not apply to all aircraft.

48. Should you practice stall exercises with a passenger on board?

Reference: TSB report A22W0057, POH/AFM for your aircraft, and CARs: 406.02, 602.01.1, 602.28.

Air transportation safety investigation report A22W0057 - Transportation Safety Board of Canada (tsb.gc.ca)

Answer 48:

No, it should be avoided as it could lead to an aerobatic maneuver like a spin.

 

49. Adverse effects of frost, ice or snow on aircraft performance and flight characteristics are generally reflected in the form of decreased thrust, decreased lift, increased drag, , trim changes, altered stall characteristics and handling qualitites. 

Ref.: TC AIM – AIR - 2.12.2 (b) (i) Aircraft Contamination on the Ground – Frost, Ice or Snow

Answer 49:

increased stall speed

 

Aeroplane-specific questions

50. Name at least three factors affecting the stall speed of an aeroplane.

Reference: use aeroplane references, Flight Training Manual, TP975

Answer: , ,

Answer 50:

Factors include: weight; location of the centre of gravity; turbulence; angle of bank; the use of flaps; the use retractable landing gear; wing contamination; heavy rain; load factor; power.

 

For questions 51 to 53, use the following information and figures (CFS, take-off and landing performance charts, and crosswind limits chart).

Total weight at takeoff: 2888 lbs

Total weight on landing: 2645 lbs

Temperature: 20º C

Pressure altitude: 2000 ft

Winds: 260º M at 12 kts

Runway: dry

51. What would be your calculated takeoff ground roll distance with the above DA40 NG aircraft figures, with wheel fairings installed?

Answer: feet.

Answer 51:

 

1785 feet or 545 meters.

  • 465m x 3.28 (converting meters into feet as per note at the bottom of the chart) = 1525’
  • Headwind, - 10% / 12 kt. 1525 – 152.5 = 1372.5’
  • Uphill slope + 15% for each 1% slope. 
  • 1372.50 + 30% = 1784.25’
 

52. Refer to the previous calculations. What are the conditions for that performance? 

Answer: , , , , .

Answer 52:

Power lever max, flaps T/O, runway dry and paved, nose wheel lift-off at 67 KIAS, and airspeed for initial climb at 72 KIAS.

 

53. What would be your calculated landing distance with the above DA40 NG aircraft figures on a wet runway?

Answer 53:

1135’ or 346 meters.

  1. 320m x 3.28 = 1049.6’
  2. Headwind – 10% / 20 knots. (1% / 2 kts, 12 kts = 6%)
  3. 1049.6 – 6% (62.97) = 986.6’
  4. Paved runway, wet: +15%. 986.6 + 15% = 1134.59’
 

54. The worst possible take-off (and climb) performance can be expected when the following four conditions are present.

Reference: Flight Training Manual - Take-off performance 

  • air temperature 
  • airport elevation
  • atmospheric pressure
  • relative humidity
Answer 54:

High (above 15 degrees C); High, Low (below 29.92); High

 

55. In the event of a go-around (overshoot or balked landing) refer to the POH of your aircraft. If no procedure is recommended in POH describe your go-around procedure.

Reference: Flight Training Manual - Approach and Landing

Answer 55:

As soon as decision is taken to overshoot: apply full power, accelerate to a safe climb speed in level flight, reduce flap extension as required for type and raise nose to a climbing attitude. Keep straight as throttle is opened and trim off the pressure on the control column. Start the climb, control the aircraft, raise flaps, adjust climb speed and retrim aircraft.

 

56. You have just turned base to final leg of the circuit and are preparing to land. To fly a stable approach to the runway in VFR conditions, what elements should be present?

Reference: Stabilized Approach - Civil Aviation Safety Alerts (CASA) No. 2015-04 (A new window will open)

Answer 56:

The aircraft must be on track, both horizontally and vertically, at the proper power setting, speed, and rate of descent, and with a landing configuration appropriate for the conditions of the day.

 

57. You are in the scenario presented in the previous question above and are below 500 feet AGL, if any of the elements are not present what should you consider doing?

Reference: Stabilized Approach - Civil Aviation Safety Alerts (CASA) No. 2015-04 (A new window will open)

Answer 57:

Execute a go around as per the procedures in your aircraft flight manual.

 

58. While descending through 400’ AGL on final approach for landing, the pilot observes the airspeed is 5 knots slow and slowly decreasing while the descent rate is constant at approximately 600 fpm, the runway threshold is steady in the windscreen, and the aeroplane is centered with the runway centerline. To stabilize the aircraft prior to descending below 200’ AGL the pilot should:

  1. pitch down to correct airspeed then trim.
  2. increase power to correct the descent then trim.
  3. increase power while pitching down to correct both airspeed and descent rate then trim.
  4. increase power while pitching down

Ref.: Flight Test Guide – Private Pilot Licence (TP 13723) and Flight Training Manual

Answer 58:

d

 

59. As a pilot with a recreational permit, are you allowed to do a cross-country beyond 25 NM from your departure aerodrome?

Ref.: CAR 401.22

Answer 59:

Yes. There is no limitation on the distance a recreational pilot may exercise their flying privileges for, other than staying in Canada.

 

Helicopter-specific questions

60. Robinson Helicopters recommends, to avoid dynamic rollover on liftoff, to always use a liftoff. This is accomplished by pulling just enough collective to be on the skids and feel for then gently lift the helicopter into the air. 

Reference: Robinson SN-9 (A new window will open)

Answer 60:

two-step, light, equilibrium

 

61. Robinson Helicopters recommends that periodic study and training, with a qualified instructor, are needed to maintain proficiency. Some of the flight manoeuvres that are recommended include: procedures, precision (including crosswind and downwind) and safe liftoff. 

Reference: Robinson R44 and R66 Pilot’s Operating Handbook

Answer 61:

recurrent; emergency; hovering

 

62. Carburetor ice can occur at OAT’s as high as ºC. When in doubt, assume conditions are to carburetor ice and as required. For helicopter engine’s equipped with a carburetor, the carburetor heat may be during takeoff.

Reference: Robinson SN-25 (A new window will open)

Answer 62:

30; conducive; apply carburetor heat; necessary.

 

63. (Please take note that the following statement applied to helicopters without some type of stabilization system) Robinson Helicopter Company Safety Notice SN-18 state that Helicopters, have   stability and roll and pitch rates than airplanes. Loss of the pilot’s outside visual references, even for a , can result in disorientation, wrong control inputs, and an uncontrolled crash.

Reference: Robinson SN-18 (A new window will open)

Answer 63:

less inherent; much faster; moment

 

64. TSB investigation report A18Q0016, A19O0026 and A11Q0168 describe a night condition, where they are few or no visual references, with the potential to lead to various illusions and cause spatial disorientation. What do we call this night condition? 

Reference: https://www.tsb.gc.ca/eng/rapports-reports/aviation/index.html (A new window will open)

Answer 64:

black hole

 

Glider-specific questions 

65. A glider and a power-driven aircraft are both preparing to land at the same aerodrome. The glider is at a lower altitude than the power-driven aircraft. Both aircraft are in the final stages of their approach to land. According to the regulations, what should the pilot-in-command of each aircraft do?

Reference: CAR 602.19

Answer 65:

The glider pilot has priority and would take action necessary to avoid collision. The power-driven aircraft shall give way to the glider. 

 

66. A power-driven aircraft and a glider are converging at approximately the same altitude near an aerodrome. The power-driven aircraft has the glider on its right. Which aircraft has the right of way and what actions should the pilots take to avoid a collision?

Reference: CAR 602.19

Answer 66:

The glider has the right of way, and the power-driven aircraft shall give way. The aircraft giving way shall not pass over or under, or cross ahead of, the other aircraft unless passing or crossing at such a distance as will not create a risk of collision. 

 

67. A pilot is planning to tow a glider or a banner using an aeroplane. The aeroplane is equipped with a tow hook but does not have a release control mechanism. Can the pilot proceed with the towing operation?

Reference: CAR 602.22

Answer 67:

No, the pilot cannot proceed because the aeroplane lacks a release control mechanism. As per CAR 602.22, no person shall operate an aeroplane that is towing an object unless the aeroplane is equipped with a tow hook and release control mechanism.

 

68. Name at least 3 best practices for preventing mid-air collisions in the vicinity of aerodromes, especially when gliding and powered aircraft are operating together.

Ref.: AIM-AIR 4.5,TSB report A19W0099 (A new window will open)

Answer: , , .

Answer 68:
  • Establishing clear and consistent radio communication, following the published circuit procedures, and scanning the airspace for traffic.
  • Maintaining a safe distance and altitude from other aircraft, using the appropriate navigation lights and markings, and reporting any conflicts or incidents.
  • Coordinating with the air traffic control or the aerodrome operator, adhering to the right-of-way rules, and avoiding abrupt or unpredictable maneuvers.
  • Use landing lights to enhance the probability of the aircraft being seen.
 

Balloon-specific questions 

69. If frost develops at a propane tank valve stem, what should you suspect is the cause? 

Reference: (use balloon references)

Answer 69:

A propane leak at the valve stem.

 

70. To launch an 84 foot balloon within a built-up area, the diameter of the launch site may be no less than .

Reference: CAR 602.13

Answer 70:

105 feet (84 foot multipled by 25%)

 

71. What are three sources of distractions that break a normal flow and disrupt standard operating procedures?

Reference: The dangerous power of powerlines: Tips for avoiding collisions and close encounters (ASL 3/2021) (A new window will open)

Answer 71:

A coordinating with a chase crew, passengers, and spectators

 

72. One of the hazards of contour flying or flying in close proximity to trees includes powerlines. What is the safest decision if a powerline strike is imminent?

Reference: The dangerous power of powerlines: Tips for avoiding collisions and close encounters (ASL 3/2021) (A new window will open)

Answer 72:

Turn off all fuel, Bleed all remaining fuel from the lines and “rip out (open wide)” the deflation port

 

73. What instruments and equipment is required to fly a hot air balloon during a day VFR flight?

Reference: CAR 605.19 Balloons – Day VFR

Answer 73:

an altimeter, a vertical speed indicator, a fuel quantity gauge, an envelope temperature indicator, a two-way VHF air-band radio to operate in Class C or D airspace, an MF (unless operating in accordance with 602.97(3)) or ADIZ.

 

Ultra-light-specific questions

74. What is the definition of a basic ultra-light aeroplane?

Reference: CAR 101.1 (1)

Answer 74:

basic ultra-light aeroplane means an aeroplane having no more than two seats, designed and manufactured to have

  • (a) a maximum take-off weight not exceeding 544 kg, and
  • (b) a stall speed in the landing configuration (Vso) of 39 knots (45 mph) indicated airspeed, or less, at the maximum take-off weight
 

75. Are basic and advanced ultra-lights permitted to fly in class C controlled airspace?

Reference: CAR 602.29 (2) (d) and 605.14

Answer 75:

No, a basic ultra-light is not permitted. Yes, an advanced ultra-light is permitted, under certain conditions, can if the aircraft is equipped in accordance with section 605.14.

 

76. What is the licensing requirement to carry a passenger in an ultra-light?

Reference: CAR 401.21 (b) and (c).

Answer 76:

Ultra-light Aeroplanes — Privileges

401.21 The holder of a pilot permit — ultra-light aeroplane may, under day VFR,

  • (a) act as pilot-in-command of an ultra-light aeroplane with no other person on board;
  • (b) act as pilot-in-command of an ultra-light aeroplane with one other person on board if
    • (i) the holder’s permit is endorsed with a passenger-carrying rating,
    • (ii) the ultra-light aeroplane has no restrictions against carrying another person, and
    • (iii) the holder has completed training, including dual instruction and solo flight, on the class of ultra-light aeroplane being operated;
  • (c) act as pilot-in-command of an ultra-light aeroplane with one other person on board if the other person is a holder of a pilot licence or permit, other than a student pilot permit, that allows them to act as pilot-in-command of an ultra-light aeroplane.
 

Gyroplane specific questions

Source: Autogyro Calidus POH

77. A pilot operating this make/model of gyroplane operating at approximately 75 feet above ground and into a 30 knot headwind would need to fly at an indicated airspeed of at least to allow for a safe landing in the event of an engine failure. 

Reference: FAA-H-8083-21 (Rotorcraft Flying Handbook – for Gyroplane Use Only)
Various gyroplane POH’s

Answer 77:

85 km/h

 

78. Flapping of rotor blades is the result of:

  1. Dissymmetry of lift 
  2. Retreating blade stall
  3. Transverse flow effect
  4. High taxi speeds

Reference: FAA-H-8083-21 (Rotorcraft Flying Handbook – for Gyroplane Use Only)

Answer 78:

Dissymmetry of lift

 

79. During ground operations in the event blade flap is encountered, immediate pilot actions are:

Reference: FAA-H-8083-21 (Rotorcraft Flying Handbook – for Gyroplane Use Only)

Answer 79:
  1. Apply forward cyclic to reduce rotor disc angle
  2. Slow the gyroplane by reducing throttle and applying brakes.
 

80. How does a negative G maneuver affect a gyroplane’s rotor RPM?

  1. Increases rapidly
  2. Remains the same
  3. Decreases rapidly

Reference: FAA-H-8083-21 (Rotorcraft Flying Handbook – for Gyroplane Use Only)

Answer 80:

Decreases rapidly

 

81. The Region of the rotor disc is the area contributing most of the autorotative force, while the Region contributes most of the vertical component of lift. 

Reference: FAA-H-8083-21 (Rotorcraft Flying Handbook – for Gyroplane Use Only)

Answer 81:

Driving; Driven

 

Weight-Shift Control Aircraft specific questions:

82. At times, weight-shift control pilots find themselves in an unintentional steep-banked descending spiral turn. This may happen while performing an emergency descent but more commonly happens when the pilot spots something on the ground and wants to get a closer look. The pilot initiates a turn which steepens to 45 to 60 degrees of bank or greater. The appropriate recovery technique is to , , and .

Reference: Weight-Shift Control Aircraft Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-5) Addendum

Answer 82:

simultaneously reduce throttle; pull the control bar in to reduce pitch; move the control bar to the side to level the wing

 

83. If a weight-shift control aircraft tumbles, this will most likely result in a structural failure of the aircraft and serious injury or death to the occupants. What three things can the pilot do to avoid a tuck and tumble:

Reference: Weight-Shift Control Aircraft Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-5) – Chapter 6

Answer 83:
  1. Flying within the manufacturer’s limitations
  2. Flying in conditions that are not conducive to tucks and tumbles
  3. Obtaining the proper training in pitch stability for the weight-shift control aircraft. 
 

Powered-Parachute Specific questions

84. Please review the video Helicopter wake turbulence: a dangerous phenomenon at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iHqN7PQraMs (A new window will open)

Studies show that helicopter wake turbulence is of a greater intensity than those of an aeroplane of equivalent weight. The effect of helicopter wake turbulence can occur over and be spread over a area. When you see a helicopter operating at a similar altitude, to avoid the wake turbulence that can last minutes.

Reference: video at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iHqN7PQraMs (A new window will open)

Answer 84:

relatively long distances; large; adapt your trajectory and fly away as soon as possible; several

 

85. Meteorological events such as dust devils can present a significant hazard to paraglider and powered parachute aircraft operations. Dust devils are that typically form on when causes the air adjacent to the ground to heat up as well. Dust devils are visible evidence of

Reference: TSB safety investigation report A20W0035
The Powered Paragliding Bible by Jeff Goin – Page 74 (A new window will open)

Answer 85:

rotating updrafts or eddies; hot sunny days; strong surface heating; very dangerous air.

 

86. What are the potential consequences of overloading paramotor wings?

  1. dynamic reaction to flying events
  2. increased sink rate
  3. increased stall speed
  4. material failure

References: Paragliding: The Beginner’s Guide by Bastienne Wentzel, Ed Ewing

Powered Paragliding Bible by Jeff Goin

Answer 86:

Material failure

 

87. Where can you find out your wing's service schedule information?

  1. Facebook
  2. Tucker Gott's Youtube channel
  3. Flying buddies
  4. Wing manual

Reference: Wing manual - chapter about Inspections

Answer 87:

Wing Manual

 

88. Where an aircraft is operated at cabin-pressure-altitudes above feet ASL but not exceeding feet ASL, each crew member shall wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen for any part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes in duration.

  1. 10,000 - 13,000
  2. 8,000 - 11,000
  3. 15,000 - 18,000

Reference: CAR 605.32

Answer 88:

a. 10,000; 13,000

 

Certification

Name:

Licence #:

Date:

I certify that I have completed this questionnaire to satisfies the 24-month recurrent training program requirements of CARs 401.05(2)(a).

I will retain this questionnaire and make it available when requested. 

Signature:

Date modified: