Standard 725 - Airline Operations - Aeroplanes - Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs)

Foreword

These Commercial Air Service Standards outline the requirements for complying with Subpart 705

of the Canadian Aviation Regulations.

For ease of cross reference the divisions and numbers of the standard are assigned to correspond to the regulations, therefore Section 725.05 would reflect a standard required by Section 705.05 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations.

Division I - General

The standards under this subpart apply to every Canadian air operator engaged in commercial air services under Subpart 705 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations.

Definitions

The words and expressions used in these Standards have the same meaning as in the General Provisions in Part I of the Canadian Aviation Regulations with the following additions:

"deplane" - means disembark; an aeroplane is deplaned when passengers leave the aeroplane in the normal manner, as opposed to evacuating the aeroplane. (débarquement)

"designated evacuation exits during fuelling" - exits that are available for immediate use should an evacuation be required. (issues désignées pour l'évacuation pendant le transfert de carburant)

"evacuate" - the egress from an aeroplane in an emergency situation using all available emergency exits and assist means such as ropes, wings, evacuation slides, etc. (évacuation)

"fuelling" - means the act of transferring fuel into or out of an aeroplane fuel tank from or to an external supply. (avitaillement ou reprise de carburant)
(amended 2003/06/01)

"operations co-ordination" - means the exercise of authority by an air operator over its operating activities, excluding operational control. (coordination des opérations)

"precision runway monitor" - means Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) equipment and procedures that enable simultaneous independent approaches to be made in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) to parallel or near-parallel runways with centrelines that are spaced less than 4,300 feet apart. (surveillance de précision des pistes)
(amended 2008/12/30)

Division II - Certification

725.07 Issuance or Amendment of Air Operator Certificate

(1) Application for an Air Operator Certificate

The following constitutes an application for an air operator certificate:

(a) form 26-0045, Airports - information required to determine the suitability of the base of operations, any sub-bases and all scheduled points. The operator shall be able to demonstrate that operations are permitted at each base, sub-base or scheduled point. This will normally be done by providing written permission from the Local Airport Authority (LAA). Where the air operator cannot obtain written permission and operations have not been denied in writing by the LAA, access to the aerodrome shall be demonstrated by other means; such as facilities provided through a lease, contractual agreement, etc.;

(b) form 26-0046, Aircraft - information with respect to each aeroplane by registration;

(c) form 26-0047 Personnel - information on required personnel. These shall be supported by resumes and statements of qualification for each position;

(d) form 26-0048, Maintenance Facilities;

(e) Maintenance Control Procedures;

(f) Company Operations Manual;

(g) Standard Operating Procedures;

(h) Minimum Equipment List(s) (if applicable);

(i) nomination for Company Check Pilot (if applicable);

(j) form 26-0448, Cabin Safety (if applicable); and

(k) aeroplane crash charts (if the type has not previously been operated in Canada).

(2) Qualifications and Responsibilities of Managerial Personnel

(a) Operations Manager

(i) Qualifications

(A) holds or has held the appropriate licence and ratings for which a pilot-in-command is required to hold for one of the aeroplanes operated; or

(B) has acquired not less than 3 years related supervisory experience with an operator of a commercial air service whose flight operations are similar in size and scope; and

(C) demonstrates knowledge to the Minister with respect to the content of the operations manual, the air operator's certificate and operations specifications, the provision of the regulations and standards necessary to carry out the duties and responsibilities to ensure safety.

(ii) Responsibilities

The operations manager is responsible for safe flight operations. In particular, the responsibilities of the position include:

(A) control of operations and operational standards of all aeroplanes operated;

(B) the identification of operations coordination functions which impact on operational control (eg. maintenance, crew scheduling, load control, equipment scheduling);

(I) flight operations;

(II) cabin safety;

(III) crew scheduling and rostering;

(IV) training programs; and

(V) safety management system;
(amended 2005/05/31)

(D) the contents of the air operator's company operations manual;

(E) the supervision of and the production and amendment of the company operations manual;

(F) liaison with the regulatory authority on all matters concerning flight operations, including any variations to the air operator's operator certificate;

(G) liaison with any external agencies which may affect air operator operations;

(H) ensuring that the air operator's operations are conducted in accordance with current regulations, standards and air operator policy;

(I) ensuring that crew scheduling complies with flight and duty time regulations, and that all crew members are kept informed of any changes to the regulations and standards;

(J) the receipt and actioning of any aeronautical information affecting the safety of flight;

(K) the dissemination of aeroplane safety information, both internal and external, in conjunction with the safety management system;
(amended 2005/05/31)

(L) qualifications of flight and cabin crews;

(M) maintenance of a current operations library; and

(N) in his or her absence delegating all responsibilities for operational duties to another qualified individual, except that the knowledge requirements detailed under operations manager qualifications may be demonstrated to the air operator rather than the Minister.
(amended 2005/05/31)

(b) Chief Pilot

(i) Qualifications

The Chief Pilot shall have the following qualifications:
(amended 2003/06/01)

(A) hold a valid Airline Transport Pilot Licence (aeroplanes), a valid Instrument Rating appropriate for the group of aeroplane and a type rating for at least one of the types of aeroplanes operated;

(B) have at least 3 years aeroplane experience (commercial operations experience not required) as pilot-in-command:
(amended 1998/03/23)

(I) of an aeroplane referred to in paragraph 705.01(a) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(II) in the weight group (more or less than 100,000 lbs) and type of operations (domestic / international, cargo / passenger);
(amended 1998/03/23)

(D) demonstrate knowledge to the Minister with respect to the content of the Company Operations Manual, Training Manuals, Standard Operating Procedures, Approved Check Pilot Manual (if applicable), and the provisions of the Regulations and Standards necessary to carry out the duties and responsibilities of the position; and

(E) the chief pilot's personal record in relation to aviation shall not include:
(amended 2003/06/01)

(I) any conviction under subsection 7.3(1) of the Aeronautics Act; or

(II) two or more convictions, occurring during separate unrelated events, under the Canadian Aviation Regulations.

(ii) Responsibilities

The chief pilot is responsible for the professional standards of the flight crews under his/her authority, and in particular:

(A) developing standard operating procedures;

(B) developing and/or implementing all required approved training programs for the air operator flight crews;

(D) the operational suitability and requirements of all aerodromes and routes served by the air operator;

(E) the actioning and distribution of accident, incident, and other occurrence reports;

(F) the processing and actioning of any flight crew reports;

(G) the supervision of flight crews;

(H) assuming any responsibilities delegated by the Operations Manager; and

(I) in his or her absence, all responsibilities for duties shall be delegated to another qualified individual, except that the knowledge requirements detailed under chief pilot qualifications may be demonstrated to the air operator rather than the Minister.

The maintenance manager shall be qualified in accordance with section 706.03 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations, Person Responsible for Maintenance Control System. (amended 2022/12/07)

(d) Flight Attendant Manager

(i) Qualifications

A Flight Attendant Manager shall:

(A) know such of the contents of the air operator's operations manual, air operator certificate and operations specifications as are necessary for the performance of the assigned duties;

(B) know such of the provisions of the Aeronautics Act, the Canadian Aviation Regulations and Standards, as are necessary for the performance of the assigned duties; and

(ii) Responsibilities

The Flight Attendant Manager is responsible for the professional standards of the cabin crews under his/her authority and in particular:

(A) assuring a current and approved Flight Attendant Manual is in place;

(B) assuring a current and approved flight attendant training program;

(D) the actioning and distribution of accident, incident, and other occurrence reports;

(E) the processing and actioning of any cabin crew reports;

(F) the supervision of flight attendants;

(G) assuming any responsibilities delegated by the Operations Manager;

(H) training of flight attendants in accordance with the approved training program;

(I) the maintenance of flight attendant training records;

(J) liaison with other company departments;

(K) the development of safety features cards; and

(L) in his or her absence, all responsibilities for duties shall be delegated to another qualified individual, except that the knowledge requirements detailed under flight attendant manager qualifications may be demonstrated to the air operator rather than the Minister.

(3) Emergency Response Plan

amended 2005/05/31)

The air operator emergency response plan required under paragraph 705.07(2)(l) shall include the following elements:
(amended 2005/05/31)

(a) air operator policy;

(b) air operator mobilization and agencies notification;

(d) casualty and next-of-kin coordination;

(e) accident investigation on behalf of the air operator;

(f) air operator team's response to the accident site;

(g) preservation of evidence;

(h) media relations;

(i) claims and insurance procedures;

(j) aeroplane wreckage removal; and

(k) emergency response training.

(4) Operational Support Services and Equipment

The requirement for operational support services and equipment will be dependent on types of aeroplanes and the size and scope of the operation and shall include, as applicable:

(a) operational control system requirements;

(b) current flight operations publications including a copy of the Aeronautics Act, applicable Canadian Aviation Regulations, company operations manual, Maintenance Control Manual/Maintenance Procedures Manual, Canada Flight Supplement, Water Aerodrome Supplement, Airplane Flight Manuals, Aircraft Operating Manuals, Standard Operating Procedures, Aeronautical Information Publication, Minimum Equipment Lists and appropriate maps and charts;

(c) issue or amendment of the operational flight plan, the ATC flight plan, required weather, NOTAMS and other information required for the flight;

(d) handling of passengers, passenger security, and provisions for the handling of dangerous goods;

(e) method for the calculation of cargo and baggage weight in accordance with section 705.38 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations;

(f) facilities and procedures for servicing the aeroplane and the handling of aeroplane surface contamination;

(g) WAT charts for the usable runways;

(h) runway surface charts which include information on pavement classification number, length of the runway, clearways and stopways and associated obstacles within the immediate area;

(i) ensurance of appropriate navigation and approach facilities for the use of the aeroplane concerned including associated maps, approach and landing charts;

(j) system for accurate control and calculation of the weight and balance in accordance with section 705.38 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations and the transmission to the pilot-in-command;

(k) maintenance control procedures including the handling of unserviceabilities and MEL procedures; and

(l) method for the retention of records of weight and balance, passenger and baggage counts, fuel uplift, cargo weights.

725.08 Contents of Air Operator Certificate

(amended 1998/03/23)

(Navigation System Authorizations pursuant to 705.08(g)(vi))

(1) Minimum Performance Capability for Long Range Area Navigation System

In order to meet the requirements of this standard, a long range area navigation system shall have the following minimum performance capability:

(a) a standard deviation of lateral track deviations of less than 6.3 nautical miles;

(b) a proportion of the total flight time spent by the aeroplane 30 nautical miles or more from the cleared track of less than 5.3 x 10 ^-4;

(c) a proportion of the total flight time spent by the aeroplane at or between 50 and 70 nautical miles from the cleared track of less than 1.3 x 10^-4; and

(d) be capable of meeting the requirements of FAA Document No. 8110.60, GPS as a Primary Means of Navigation in Oceanic /Remote Operations where, under paragraphs 725.08(2), 525.857(c) and 525.857(d) , a GPS receiver provides the only means of long range navigation.

(2) Authorizations

(a) Required Navigation Performance Capability (RNPC) Airspace

The standard requirements for authorization to flight plan published high level fixed RNAV routes in Required Navigation Performance Capability (RNPC) airspace, or to be accommodated by Air Traffic Control (ATC) on other routes using RNPC separation criteria, are:

(i) aeroplanes equipped with at least two independent navigation systems, one of which must be a long range area navigation system; and

(ii) flight crew training on operation of the long range area navigation system in accordance with subsection 725.124 (27) of the Commercial Air Service Standards.

(b) Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (CMNPS) and RNPC Airspace

The standard requirements for authorization to operate in Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (CMNPS) airspace, and to flight plan published high level fixed RNAV routes in Required Navigation Performance Capability (RNPC) airspace, and to be accommodated by Air Traffic Control (ATC) on other routes using RNPC separation criteria are:

(i) aeroplanes with navigation equipment as follows:

(A) aeroplanes operating only in domestic airspace on high level airways equipped in accordance with paragraph 605.18 (j) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations;
(amended 1998/09/01)

(B) aeroplanes operating only in domestic airspace on company approved routes or direct routes that begin and end within reception range of ground based navaids equipped with at least two independent navigation systems, one of which being a long range area navigation system;

(C) aeroplanes operating in CMNPS airspace other than on high level airways, company approved routes and direct routings that begin and end within the reception range of ground based navaids equipped with two independent long range navigation systems.

(ii) flight crew training on operation of the long range area navigation system(s) in accordance with subsection 725.124 (27) of the Commercial Air Service Standards.

The standard for authorization to operate in North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (NAT MNPS) airspace, CMNPS airspace, to flight plan published high level fixed RNAV routes in Required Navigation Performance Capability (RNPC) airspace, and to be accommodated by Air Traffic Control (ATC) on other routes using RNPC separation criteria are:

(i) aeroplanes with navigation equipment as follows:

(A) aeroplanes equipped with at least two independent long range area navigation systems;

(B) aeroplanes equipped with at least two independent navigation systems, one of which being a long range area navigation system, may be approved for NAT MNPS operations restricted to routes approved for aeroplanes with one long range RNAV system;

(C) aeroplanes equipped with at least two independent navigation systems based on short range ground transmitters may be approved for NAT MNPS operations restricted to routes approved for aircraft with no long range RNAV capability.

(ii) flight crew training on operation of the long range area navigation system(s) in accordance with subsection 725.124 (27) of the Commercial Air Service Standards.

(d) Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) Airspace
(amended 2003/03/01)

The standards for authorization to operate in Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) airspace are:
(amended 2003/03/01)

(i) the aircraft shall be certified in accordance with the ICAO/FAA Document 91-RVSM and meet the other applicable technical requirements of ICAO NAT DOC 001,
(amended 2003/03/01)

(ii) the air operator shall comply with the ICAO/FAA Document 91-RVSM and meet the other applicable requirements of ICAO NAT DOC 001, and
(amended 2003/03/01)

(iii) the flight crew training shall be in accordance with the requirements of subsection 725.124(53).
(amended 2003/03/01)

(e) Pacific Required Navigation Performance 10 (RNP-10) Airspace
(amended 2002/12/01)

The requirements for authorization to operate in Pacific RNP-10 airspace are as follows:

(i) the aircraft is equipped with at least two independent long range navigation systems capable of meeting a position accuracy of +/- 10 NM or better for 95% of the flight time in RNP-10 airspace,

(ii) an RNP-10 time limit is established for aircraft equipped with only Inertial Navigation Systems (INS) or Inertial Navigation Units (INU), in order to meet the Pacific RNP-10 accuracy requirements,

(iii) the aircraft meets the technical requirements of the navigation element of FAA Order 8400.12A, Required Navigation Performance 10 (RNP-10) Operational Approval,

(iv) flight crew training is provided on the operation of the long range area navigation systems in accordance with the training requirements set out in subsection 725.124(27), and

(v) flight crew training is provided on operations in Pacific RNP-10 airspace in accordance with the training requirements set out in subsection 725.124(52).

(3) Instrument Approaches - Global Positioning System (GPS)

(amended 1998/09/01)

(a) The standard requirements for authorization to fly instrument approach procedures using only GPS navigation information are:

(i) an operational evaluation in accordance with subsection 725.08(3)(b) has been completed by the Minister on each aircraft type/GPS/FMS model installation for which approach authorization is sought;

(ii) an air operator has an approved flight crew training and qualifications program for use of the GPS/FMS system that meets the requirements of subsection 725.124; and

(iii) standard operating procedures have been amended to reflect GPS approach operations and approved by the Minister (where required).

(b) The following items will be assessed in the operational evaluation prior to the approval of the operator's GPS approach standard operating procedures (where applicable) and training program. Identical installations of the same model of GPS in the same type of aircraft with the same operator do not need separate evaluations.

(i) Database

The geographical coverage area for the database shall be compatible with the type of operations conducted by the company. The air operator shall have procedures in place to ensure that the database will be updated in accordance with the appropriate data revision cycle. This shall include a contract with a database supplier and the inclusion, in the appropriate company manuals, of the person responsible for installing the updates in the aircraft. The company shall have a procedure in place for pilots to report database errors and for information on database errors to be passed on to other company pilots, the avionics manufacturer and the Minister.

(ii) Unit Installation and Operation

The handling and procedures associated with the GPS avionics shall be such that all operations required for GPS approach can be accomplished without an adverse impact on normal crew duties and responsibilities. GPS related tasks shall not consume the attention of the pilot not flying (PNF) during critical phases of flight (i.e. between the time the aircraft turns inbound on the final approach course and the time the aircraft is established in the climb configuration on a missed approach).

(iii) Control Display Unit (CDU) and Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) / Distance Display

If the GPS/FMS control unit is not adequately accessible from each pilot position, or if GPS course deviation and distance displays are not within the primary field of view at both pilot stations, air operators shall designate in the standard operating procedures the position that the pilot flying (PF) and pilot not flying (PNF) are required to occupy during GPS approach for that type of installation. Aircraft types that are certified for operation by two crew members shall have GPS course deviation and distance displays at each pilot station. An Operation Specification authorizing GPS approaches shall not be issued unless the PNF has a means acceptable, in the Minister's opinion, of monitoring the PF during an approach.

(iv) Distance Display on the HSI

Installations where GPS guidance information (course tracking, To/From and NAV flags) are switched onto the HSI for display, but the DME distance information is not switched out (i.e. DME distance rather than GPS distance is displayed continuously on the HSI even when GPS source is selected to HSI), shall require air operators, in their standard operating procedures for GPS approach, to deselect other NAV/DME sources to eliminate distance displays in the pilot's primary field of vision not related to the approach procedure being flown.

(v) Annunciation

Responses to system annunciation (including Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) warnings), the means of selecting GPS track information to the CDI/HSI and the means of coupling GPS steering information to the aircraft automatic flight control system shall be compatible with the safe operation of the aircraft type/category. Standard operating procedures shall specify the procedure whereby the control unit is programmed, approach waypoints are verified against an independent source, approach mode is armed, and cockpit NAV source and AFC guidance source switches are selected and verified. Any switch selection or programming errors that the Minister believes are likely to occur and that could lead to a serious incident shall, if possible, be identified and addressed in training and in the standard operating procedures. Otherwise, the installation shall not be approved for approach use.

(vi) Airborne Evaluation

The Minister shall observe the pre-flight and in-flight operation of the unit on at least one GPS approach and missed approach. If the PF is allowed to occupy either seat during GPS approaches, then one approach from each pilot position shall be demonstrated. An airborne evaluation in an aircraft must take place under VFR. Emphasis will be on crew co-ordination, pilot workload (PF and PNF), and switch selections.

(4) Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) Approaches

(amended 2008/12/30)

The standard for authorization to operate an aircraft using precision runway monitor approaches is as follows:

(a) The aircraft shall be equipped with two independent very high frequency (VHF) communication radios;

(b) The air operator shall develop procedures in its company operations manual for the guidance of its personnel; and

Division III - Flight Operations

725.16 Exceptions

Briefing to Persons on Board

(1) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that all passengers on board the aircraft are briefed before take-off with respect to:

(a) the location and use of emergency and normal exits;

(b) the location and use of safety belts;

(d) the stowage of carry-on baggage;

(e) where the aircraft is unpressurized and it is planned that the flight will require the use of oxygen by the passengers, the location and use of oxygen equipment; and

(f) any prohibition against smoking.

(2) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that all passengers on the aircraft are briefed:

(a) in the case of an over-water flight, before commencement of the over-water portion of the flight, with respect to the location and use of personal flotation devices and life preservers; and

(b) in the case of a pressurized aircraft that is to be operated at an altitude above FL 250, before the aircraft reaches FL 250, with respect to the location and use of oxygen equipment.

(3) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall, before take-off, ensure that all passengers on the aircraft are provided with information respecting the location and use of any life raft that is required to be carried on board pursuant to section 602.63 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations.

725.20 Operational Control System

General

Operational control is the exercise of authority over the formulation, execution, and amendment of an operational flight plan in respect of a flight.

An air operator's organizational chart must clearly show that the commercial function of the air operator (operations co-ordination) has no direct link or no authority over the air operator's operational control system.

Operations conducted under Subpart 705

of the Canadian Aviation Regulations require a Type A, B or C operational control system.

Another organization may be contracted to exercise operational control on behalf of an air operator.

Definitions

"co-authority dispatch" - means the shared authority, between the pilot-in-command and the flight dispatcher in a Type A or B operational control system, for decisions respecting the operational flight plan prior to acceptance of the operational flight plan by the pilot-in-command. (régulation des vols en co-responsabilité)
(amended 2000/12/01)

"complex operations" - means operations where any two of the following conditions exist:

* the air operator operates more than 6 aeroplanes having a passenger-seating configuration of 20 or more and a maximum gross take-off weight of 45,455 kg (100,000 lbs.) or more;

* the air operator operates more than 18 flights (constituting 18 take-offs and 18 landings) per 24 hour period; and

* the air operator's operations are mixed domestic and international. (opérations complexes)

"flight following" - means the monitoring of a flight's progress, the provision of such operational information as may be requested by the pilot-in-command, and the notification of appropriate air operator and search-and-rescue authorities if the flight is overdue or missing. Meteorological information provided to the pilot-in-command by the flight follower shall not include analysis or interpretation. (suivi des vols)

"flight watch" - means maintaining current information on the progress of the flight and monitoring all factors and conditions that might affect the Operational Flight Plan. (surveillance des vols)

"pilot's self-dispatch" - means a flight where the pilot-in-command is solely responsible for Flight Watch. (régulation des vols par le pilote)

Application

(1) In order to meet its own operational needs, an air operator may choose to operate under an operational control system of a higher classification.

(2) Type A

A Type A classification shall apply to air operators carrying passengers in Airline Operations using more than 6 aeroplanes:

(a) having a passenger-seating configuration of 20 or more;

(b) having a maximum gross take-off weight of 45,455 kg (100,000 lbs.) or more; and

(3) Type B

(a) A Type B classification shall apply to air operators carrying passengers in Airline Operations using aeroplanes:

(i) having a passenger-seating configuration of 20 or more; and

(ii) having a maximum gross take-off weight of less than 45,455 kg (100,000 lbs.).

(b) This classification shall also apply to air operators carrying passengers in Airline Operations using 6 or fewer aeroplanes:

(i) having a passenger-seating configuration of 20 or more;

(ii) having a maximum gross take-off weight of 45,455 kg (100,000 lbs.) or more; and

(iii) not operating under complex operations.

(4) Type C

A Type C classification shall apply to air operators:

(a) operating cargo-only aeroplanes; or

(b) carrying passengers in Airline Operations when:

(i) operating aeroplanes having a passenger-seating configuration of less than 20;

(ii) operating 3 or less propeller-driven aeroplanes with a passenger-seating configuration of 20 or more but fewer than 60.

(5) Air operators using type A or B Operational Control systems for their passenger services may revert to a type "C" Operational Control system for cargo only operations provided that the cargo and passenger operations are outlined in separate sections within the Company Operations Manual with appropriate cross references.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(6) For purposes of this section, a combination of cargo and passenger flights will be considered passenger operations.
(amended 1998/03/23)

Systems Description

Type A System

(1) General

(a) Responsibility and Authority

(i) Prior to acceptance by the pilot-in-command of the Operational Flight Plan (OFP), operational control, as delegated by the Operations Manager in the company operations manual, is exercised jointly by the flight dispatcher and the pilot-in-command of a flight;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(ii) After the pilot-in-command accepts the Operational Flight Plan, the flight dispatcher and the pilot-in-command share responsibility for Flight Watch and shall share pertinent and related flight information and any proposed changes to the Operational Flight Plan;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(iii) The air operator shall specify in its company operations manual the method by which formal acceptance of the operational flight plan by the pilot-in-command and the dispatcher are recorded. If flight plans are formulated and accepted for a series of flights, the air operator must develop procedures to ensure any changes to the subsequent flight plans are approved by both the pilot-in-command and dispatcher;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(iv) The flight planning and flight watch phases of operational control can be separated into two functions requiring qualified dispatchers for each function. An air operator separating the flight planning and flight watch shall specify, in their company operations manual, the procedures required to transit from flight planning to flight watch;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(v) Once a flight has commenced, the final decision on any changes to the Operational Flight Plan shall be taken by the pilot-in-command based on considerations of safety. For the purpose of operational control systems, a flight is deemed to be "commenced" after brake release for take-off;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(vi) Limited pilot self-dispatch of flights may be permitted at those enroute stops where a lack of communications facilities prevents the co-authority dispatch of a flight. In such cases, the air operator shall develop, and submit to Transport Canada - Civil Aviation for approval, those additional procedures that are intended to compensate for the lack of flight dispatcher participation in the flight's next operational flight plan;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(b) Centres

The Flight Dispatch Centre shall be established so as to ensure operational control throughout the air operator's entire route structure or area of operations.

(i) In-flight Communications

Timely and direct communication between the responsible flight dispatcher, if applicable, and the pilot-in-command of a flight shall be maintained during flight time over all or almost all the route structure. A communications capability similar to that required for a Type B Operational Control system may be authorized for mid-route sectors of flights and certain destinations, such as those specified in paragraph (1)(a) above, where direct communication is not practical.

(ii) On-ground Communications

A direct communications capability between the pilot-in-command and the flight dispatcher shall be provided at any station regularly served by the air operator. The equipment used shall be accessible to the pilot-in-command and may include the following:

(A) VHF/HF Radio voice;

(B) telephone;

(D) teletype.

This requirement may be waived by Transport Canada - Civil Aviation, at those stations where a lack of facilities prevents communication between the pilot-in-command and flight dispatch.

Timely communication means the ability to establish communications domestically within thirty minutes of first trying and internationally within one hour when the flight is in cruise.

Direct communication means the ability of the flight dispatcher and the pilot-in-command to communicate using the air operator's facilities, an electronic data link facility, or a facility operated by a third party according to an agreement.

(d) Flight Dispatchers On Duty

The air operator will provide sufficient dispatchers to operate their operational control system based on the air operator's workload analysis.

(2) Flight Dispatch Centre

(a) Each centre shall have a means of providing to the flight dispatcher without delay:

(i) NOTAM and NOTAM summaries;

(ii) all weather reports for airports used as destination or alternate airports or for emergencies;

(iii) forecasts, area and terminal, for the area of responsibility and such wider area as are needed for proper weather trend analysis; and

(iv) weather radar summaries, where available as part of the normal weather reporting system.

(b) The air operator shall
(amended 2000/12/01)

(i) establish a system to inform flight dispatchers at each centre of significant changes in flight conditions and in conditions at stations significant to the company's flights.

(ii) establish a system of documenting or recording safety related information exchanged between dispatchers, flight crews and maintenance, as stipulated in the air operator's operations manual, and

(iii) retain the documented or recorded information for a minimum of 7 days.

(i) aeroplane operating manuals and Minimum Equipment Lists, as appropriate;

(ii) company operations manual;

(iii) airport runway data; and

(iv) such additional information as may be needed to enable the formulation of an operational flight plan or to exercise Flight Watch services.

(d) Each centre shall be provided with communications equipment that ensures:
(amended 2000/12/01)

(i) a means to provide a hard copy of an operational Flight Plan, or an amendment, to the pilot-in-command; and

(ii) direct ATS contact.

(3) Flight Dispatcher

(a) The air operator shall ensure that each flight dispatcher is trained and qualified in accordance with the requirements of its approved training program.

(b) Before commencing duty, a flight dispatcher shall receive a briefing on, or shall study, all pertinent weather charts, weather reports, NOTAM, operational restrictions in force, flights in the air, flights for which Operational Flight Plans (Dispatch Releases) have been issued but that have not yet commenced and for which he or she shall be responsible, and the forecast flight schedule.

(c) The responsible flight dispatcher may supervise personnel, including assistants, as part of an approved on-the-job training program, provided this supervision does not interfere with the performance of his or her duties.

(d) The flight dispatcher shall maintain a record of information generated or exchanged in relation to any flight for which that flight dispatcher has responsibility.

(4) Dispatch Release

The Dispatch Release of a flight occurs when the flight dispatcher approves the Operational Flight Plan, after which it is submitted to the pilot-in-command for acceptance. When there is disagreement between the flight dispatcher and the pilot-in-command over the dispatch of a flight, the disagreement resolution policy, where one has been specified by the air operator, or the most conservative course of action shall be followed. The dispatch release may be in the form of an Operational Flight Plan or a separate document, which includes the qualified flight dispatcher's name, personal signature or an alternate means of certifying acceptance such as an electronic signature issued in accordance with the procedure described in the air operator's company operations manual.
(amended 2007/06/30)

A means shall be provided and procedures developed to ensure that at each location where flights originate, the pilot-in-command:

(a) receives meteorological information related to the flight;

(b) obtains a hard copy of the Operational Flight Plan; and

(c) except where communication is not practical, can contact the responsible flight dispatcher prior to take-off, if necessary.

(5) Flight Watch

(a) A flight dispatcher shall maintain current information on the progress of flights for which he or she is responsible.

(b) Flight Watch, which shall continue until completion of the flight, shall be maintained on all factors and conditions that might affect the Operational Flight Plan. The pilot-in-command shall be kept fully advised of all these factors and conditions.

(i) after each take-off and landing;

(ii) at least once an hour on any flight longer than one hour conducted in uncontrolled airspace;

(iii) at intervals within two hours after departure and every two hours thereafter for operations conducted on other than flight plan routes within Canadian and Continental U.S.A domestic airspace. Where communications are not possible, the air operator must have an acceptable alternative to the two hour in-flight report;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(iv) when the fuel remaining at any time on the flight falls below the minimum specified on the Operational Flight Plan; and

(v) where the pilot-in-command determines a change is necessary to the Operational Flight Plan enroute.

(d) Reports are not required for flight operations conducted within Canadian domestic and Continental U.S.A airspace using Aircraft Situation Display System (ASDS) or another automated tracking methods integrated into the flight watch system;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(e) When using the ASDS or other automated tracking system, it shall
(amended 2000/12/01)

(i) supply identification, position, track, speed and altitude automatically refreshed at less than five minute intervals,

(ii) display the information specified in (i) above in a readable and clear manner, and

(iii) when used as a primary means for flight watch, be a redundant system which includes back-up displays, controls, power-supplies and data feeds. In addition to the redundancies built into the system, the air operator shall establish operational procedures for use during system failures and shall document the training required to operate the system in the company operations manual.

Information Note:

(i) Direct routing or radar vectoring which does not effect the safety of the flight is considered to be within the flight plan route.

(ii) Reports by flights on international operations, as stipulated by ICAO standards, are required on international operations conducted outside Canadian and Continental U.S.A domestic airspace.
(amended 2000/12/01)

Type B System

(1) General

(a) Responsibility and Authority

(i) The requirements are the same as for Type A, paragraph (1)(a); or

(ii) when departure is from an airport not routinely served by the air operator and communications do not permit the co-authority dispatch of a flight, the Operational Flight Plan (dispatch release) shall be established before the arrival of the flight. The pilot-in-command shall advise the flight dispatcher of any modifications made to the Operational Flight Plan when communications allow.

(b) Centres

The Flight Dispatch Centre shall be established so as to provide assistance to the pilots-in-command over any area for which a Type B system is approved.

(i) In-flight Communications

Direct or indirect communication between the flight dispatcher and the pilot-in-command shall be maintained during flight time with as short a delay as practical considerations permit. A private agency under contract to the air operator may be approved to provide the required communications services. The use of ATS communications is permitted if the services of a private agency are not available.

(ii) On-ground Communications

The requirements are the same as for Type A, subparagraph (1)(c)(ii).

(d) Flight Dispatchers On Duty

The requirements are the same as for Type A, paragraph (1)(d).

(2) Flight Dispatch Centre

(a) Information provided to flight dispatchers - the requirements are the same as for Type A, paragraph (2)(a).

(b) Provisions of each centre - the requirements are the same as for Type A, paragraph (2)(b).

(i) direct contact with the pilot-in-command during flight when operating in the vicinity of airports regularly served by the air operator. At those stations where a lack of facilities prevent direct communications between the pilot-in-command and flight dispatch, reliable indirect contact through a ground station, by the air operator personnel, and radio relay from that station to the pilot-in-command shall be permitted;

(ii) direct communication with the flight line at each airport regularly served by the operator; and

(iii) direct ATS contact.

(3) Flight Dispatcher

The requirements are the same as for Type A, subsection (3).

(4) Dispatch Release

The requirements are the same as for Type A, subsection (4), except where differences are approved.

(5) Flight Watch

The requirements are the same as for Type A, subsection (5), with the exception of subparagraph (5)(c)(iii), which is to be observed as far as practical, taking into consideration the nature of the particular operations.

Type C System

(1) General

(a) Responsibility and Authority

Operational control is delegated to the pilot-in-command of a flight by the Operations Manager who retains responsibility for the day-to-day conduct of flight operations.

(b) Centres

Current information on the location of the air operator's aeroplanes shall be maintained at the main base of operations or, where appropriate, at its sub-base of operations.

Each aeroplane shall be equipped with serviceable and functioning communications equipment that permits the pilot-in-command to communicate with a ground radio station for the purpose of exchanging messages with the air operator. Such a ground station may be operated by the government, the air operator, or a private agency.

(d) Personnel on Duty

Refer to subsection (4) below.

(2) Dispatch Release

Flights operated under this system are self-dispatched and released by the pilot-in-command. Where an air operator chooses to use a Dispatch Release, as required under a Type B system, the flight dispatcher preparing that release shall be qualified in accordance with Type B operational control system.

(3) Flight Follower

The air operator shall ensure that each flight follower is trained in accordance with the requirements of its approved training program.

(4) Flight Watch and Flight Following

(a) Flight Following for a Type C system is the monitoring of a flight's progress, the provision of such operational information as may be required by that flight, and the notification of appropriate air operator and search-and-rescue authorities if the flight is overdue or missing.

(b) Flight Following procedures shall be described in the air operator's Company Operations Manual.

(c) Under a Type C system, the pilot-in-command is solely responsible for Flight Watch but shall be supported by a Flight Following System containing the following elements:

(i) a person, qualified and knowledgeable in the air operator flight alerting procedures, on duty and able to respond to requests by the pilot-in-command for information related to the flight. Such information shall include meteorological information without analysis or interpretation;

(ii) the progress of each flight from its commencement to its termination, including any intermediate stops, shall be monitored, which may be done by the same person as in subparagraph (4)(c)(i) above; and
(effective 2014/07/31)

(iii) the pilot‑in‑command shall be responsible for passing messages concerning aeroplane landings and departures from point of origin, enroute stops, and final destination to the person described in subparagraph (4)(c)(i) above.
(effective 2014/07/31)

725.22 Operational Flight Plan

In accordance with the classification of its operational control system (725.20), an air operator shall adhere to one of the following types of operational flight plan (OFP):

* 30 items OFP as listed below;

* 18 items OFP as indicated by asterisk in the list below; or

* informal operational flight plan, being either an ATC flight plan, a flight itinerary or other flight following information as required.

Operational Control System	Type of Operational Flight Plan
Type A	30 items OFP
Type B international	30 items OFP
Type B domestic	18 items OFP
Type C - IFR (except local) and VFR at night	18 items OFP
Type C - VFR (day) and IFR local	Informal OFP
All short range flights (less than 30 minutes)	18 items OFP
All local flights (within 25 nm from the departure aerodrome)	Informal OFP

The Minimum Required Content of an Operational Flight Plan is:

(1)* air operator's name;

(2)* date;

(3)* aeroplane registration;

(4)* aeroplane tail number (as applicable);

(5)* aeroplane type and model (as applicable);

(6)* flight number (as applicable);

(7) type of flight (IFR or VFR)(not required if all the air operator's flights are the same);

(8)* pilot-in-command's name;

(9)* flight dispatcher's name (as applicable);

(10)* departure aerodrome;

(11)* destination aerodrome;

(12)* alternate aerodrome (as applicable), including enroute alternates where required;

(13) routing to destination by successive navigational way points and a method to obtain associated tracks for each;

(14) routing to alternate aerodrome (as applicable);

(15) specification of any way points enroute to satisfy special operations requirements (ETOPS, etc.);

(16)* planned cruise altitudes to destination and alternate (as applicable);

(17) planned cruise true air speed;

(18) planned cruise indicated air speed, or mach number (as applicable);

(19) winds at planned cruise altitude: these may be expressed in terms of direction/velocity or as a component/drift angle;

(20) temperature at cruise altitude;

(21) ground speed or wind component during cruise;

(22)* estimated time enroute: if broken down into way point time components, a total shall be specified;

(23) time from destination to alternate (as applicable);

(24) distance to destination: if broken down into way point distance components, a total shall be specified;

(25) distance from destination to alternate (as applicable);

(26)* fuel burn enroute and from destination to alternate;

(27)* fuel required for the type of flight plan for (as applicable):

(a) taxi,

(b) destination,

(d) holding reserve, and

(e) additional requirements or enroute reserve (as applicable);

(28)* weights:

(a) total fuel on board,

(b) zero fuel weight, and

(29)* signature of pilot-in-command and the flight dispatcher (as applicable) or alternate means of certifying acceptance; and

(30)* number of persons on board, crew and passengers, as amended by final load figures.

The format of the full operational flight plan shall allow the crew to record the fuel state and the progress of the flight relative to the plan. The operational flight plan may be computer generated or produced manually, working from charts and tables, by either the flight dispatcher or the flight crew. When an operational flight plan is prepared manually, an approved form displaying the requisite information and providing the necessary space to make flight following entries as the flight progresses shall be used.

The air operator shall specify, in its company operations manual, how formal acceptance of the operational flight plan by the Pilot-in-Command and, if applicable, the flight dispatcher shall be recorded.

725.25 Fuel Requirements

(1) Designated Areas and Required Fuel Reserve

(a) The designated routes or areas where the enroute fuel reserve of 5% is required, with exclusions as indicated, are:

(i) routes where flights are exclusively within or terminating within Northern Domestic Airspace; or

(ii) routes where flights are within International Airspace with the following exclusions:

(A) airspace within Continental United States excluding Alaska;

(B) airspace over the land mass of Continental Europe west of 20 degrees east longitude, including the United Kingdom, and the Republics of Finland, Greece and Ireland.

(b) Flights in the Caribbean Area

(i) Flights in the Caribbean area, when proceeding in the areas defined as A, B and C in (ii) below, shall carry enroute fuel reserves as follows:

(A) flights into and out of Mexico City need to carry no enroute fuel reserve;

(B) flights terminating at destinations and using alternates within and out of area B need to carry no enroute fuel reserve;

(C) flights at destination of, or within areas A and C, instead of enroute fuel reserve, shall carry additional fuel above section 602.88 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations requirements, equivalent to five minutes of hold at 1500 feet above ground level at the intended point of landing (destination) for the aeroplane being operated;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(D) flights outside areas A, B or C require enroute fuel reserve of 5%;

(E) flights originating from areas A, B or C with destinations in Canadian Southern Domestic Airspace or in the Continental United States excluding Alaska need to carry no enroute fuel reserve;

(F) flights with destinations in area A might be approved to carry no enroute fuel reserve. Approval will be done on a case-by-case basis, as per upgrading of services by Mexico.

(ii) Caribbean Areas

(A) Area A

The airspace within Mexico City UTA, Monterey UTA, and Mazatlan UTA, and Houston Oceanic CTA.

(B) Area B

The airspace within Miami Centre, Miami Oceanic CTA, New York Oceanic CTA south of 35° N and west of 70°W, San Juan Oceanic CTA and San Juan TMA.

The airspace within Merida UTA, Havana CTA, Santo Domingo CTA, Port Au Prince CTA, Kingston CTA, Curacao CTA, Central American UTA, Panama CTA north of the southern boundary of the Panama ADIZ, Barranquilla UTA north of 10°N, Maiquetia UTA north of 10°N, and Piarco CTA north of 10°N and west of 59°W.

(2) Reduced Enroute Fuel Reserve - Designated Routes

To be authorized in an air operator certificate to fly routes designated as not requiring the enroute fuel reserve, the following conditions shall be met:

(a) High/Low Airway Structure

(i) high and low level airway structure are complementary to company routings;

(ii) ATS approved company RNAV routes are acceptable; and

(iii) operations on high and low level air routes shall be in controlled airspace;

(b) Ground and Airborne Navigation Aids

(i) navigation aids and airborne equipment are complementary to airway and terminal structure;

(ii) airborne navigation equipment has redundancy;

(iii) there shall be a maximum distance of 400 NM between navigation facilities in the high level structure;

(iv) at least 90% of the facilities shall be DME equipped; and

(v) FSS communication system shall be reliable and of a high quality;

(i) enroute radar capability providing 90% route coverage;

(ii) terminal radar capability at airports with high traffic levels;

(iii) enroute Radar equipped with SSR with Mode Al (4096 codes), mode C and emergency coder capabilities; and

(iv) high quality and reliable ATC communication system;

(d) Communications

ATS and FSS provide enroute NOTAM, weather reporting and forecasting service for all flight plan areas;

(e) Enroute Airports

(i) adequate for landing of the aeroplane concerned;

(ii) ATS controllers with language skills adequate to ensure the exchange of information with flight crews;

(iii) 50% of enroute airports equipped with Terminal Radar, ILS, and VASIS; and

(iv) within 60 minutes flying time with one engine inoperative.

(f) High/Low Level Weather and NOTAM Availability

(i) complete NOTAM, forecast and actual weather information available at all points of departure for departure, enroute, destination and alternate airports;

(ii) proven reliability in wind forecasting at all enroute altitudes;

(iii) CAT and windshear prediction capability;

(iv) full coverage of weather and NOTAM information through FSS enroute; and

(v) 60% weather coverage of company routes (including area weather and enroute airports);

(g) Flight Watch/Flight Dispatch Capability

Flights must be operated under a Type A operational control system; and

(h) Air Operator Route and Airport Training

Comprehensive information provided on foreign rules, routes and airports.

(3) Reduced Enroute Fuel Reserve - for the Portion of a Flight Outside Domestic Airspace

(a) Definitions

"domestic airspace" - for the purpose of this subsection, means an area including the Canadian Southern Domestic Airspace and the areas defined in (1)(a)(ii)(A) and (B) above.

"enroute destination" - means a destination airport associated with a decision point, where the flight is to proceed if the remaining fuel on board does not meet the fuel required beyond the decision point.

"enroute alternate" - is the alternate aerodrome associated with an enroute destination.

"enroute flight release" - means a dispatch release issued during flight.

(b) To be authorized in an air operator certificate to carry an enroute fuel reserve only for that portion of a flight conducted outside domestic airspace, the following conditions shall be met:

(i) the air operator shall define a decision point in domestic airspace when entering or leaving domestic airspace and suitable enroute destination and enroute alternate for that decision point. The air operator may define other decision points outside of domestic airspace each of which shall have suitable enroute destination and enroute alternate. The decision points, enroute destinations and enroute alternates are designated in the operational flight plan. The decision points are to be located along the proposed track, no further than abeam the associated enroute destination;

(ii) enroute destinations and enroute alternates shall meet the same weather requirements as if they were actual destinations and alternates;

(iii) the enroute fuel reserve for a route segment outside of domestic airspace shall be 5% of the total fuel required to fly from a decision point, to the next decision point, then to the associated enroute destination, and then to the associated enroute alternate;

(iv) the flight is operated under a Type A operational control system;

(v) within two hours of a flight arrival at a decision point, the flight dispatcher issues an enroute flight release indicating the fuel required to the next enroute destination or to final destination, as applicable, and if a factor, the one engine inoperative and the depressurization fuel required to proceed beyond the decision point. Additional information pertinent to the safety of the flight and updates on the fuel status are also to be provided;

(vi) the flight is not to proceed beyond a decision point unless the pilot-in-command confirms from the enroute flight release that there is fuel on board to reach the next enroute destination or final destination, as applicable, with the required fuel reserves. If upon reaching a decision point without sufficient fuel on board, the flight is to proceed to the enroute destination;

(vii) if no enroute flight release is received at a decision point, the pilot-in-command may choose to proceed to final destination providing he is satisfied that the required fuel is on board. The pilot-in-command is to advise the flight dispatcher of his action as soon as practicable;

(viii) the aeroplane MEL requires the aeroplane be equipped with a serviceable ACARS or with a serviceable SELCAL with two serviceable HF or two VHF transceivers when the enroute flight release is planned to be transmitted on this type of communication;

(ix) the air operator develops procedures for reduced enroute fuel reserve operations for inclusion in the company operations manual and the flight crews and flight dispatchers receive initial and recurrent training to confirm competency for flight operations utilizing reduced enroute fuel reserves; and

(x) the operational flight plan, flight crew log and dispatcher log identify each decision point, and at each decision point, the actual fuel requirements at the time of the issue of the enroute flight release and the actual fuel on the aeroplane.

725.29 Flight Crew Members at Controls

"Cruise portion of a flight" - means that phase of flight between reaching initial cruise altitude and the beginning of descent at destination.

Providing the procedures for handover of responsibility are detailed in the standard operating procedures manual of the air operator, relief of a flight crew member at the controls is permitted under the following conditions:

(1) A captain, first officer, second officer or flight engineer may be relieved at any time during the flight, by a captain, first officer, second officer or flight engineer providing:

(a) the crew member is qualified on type in accordance with section 705.106 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations; and

(b) occupies the same cockpit position.

(2) A captain may be relieved by a first officer providing:

(a) the first officer is qualified on type in accordance with section 705.106 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations;

(b) a first officer is designated to act as pilot-in-command or is delegated with the responsibility for the safe operation of the aeroplane and holds a valid Air Transport Pilot License; and

(3) A first officer may be relieved by a captain providing:

(a) the captain is qualified on type in accordance with section 705.106 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations; and

(b) relief occurs during the cruise phase of flight only.

(4) A second officer or a flight engineer may be relieved by a captain or first officer during the cruise phase of flight only, providing the captain or first officer meets the requirements of subsection 705.107(2) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations.

(5) A captain or first officer may be relieved by a cruise relief pilot providing the cruise relief pilot:

(a) holds a Commercial Pilot License and is endorsed on the aeroplane type as a Cruise Relief Pilot;

(b) holds a valid Group I Instrument Rating;

(d) has successfully completed an approved ground and flight training course for a cruise relief pilot;

(e) has passed a cruise relief pilot proficiency check, consisting of the items in section 725.106 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations, Schedule III, conducted by an approved check pilot;

(f) has completed annual recurrent ground and synthetic training device training;

(g) has passed a cruise relief pilot line check conducted by an approved check pilot; and

(h) where the cruise relief pilot relieves the captain:

(i) the first officer is designated to act as pilot-in-command or is delegated with the responsibility for the safe operation of the aeroplane;

(ii) the first officer holds a valid Air Transport Pilot License; and

(iii) relief occurs during the cruise phase of flight only; and

(i) where the cruise relief pilot relieves the first officer:

(i) relief occurs during the cruise phase of flight only.

725.31 Crew Member Briefing

The pre-flight crew member briefing shall consist of a joint crew member briefing involving all crew members or a briefing from the pilot-in-command to the in-charge flight attendant and from the in-charge flight attendant to other cabin crew members. Where the flight involves only one flight attendant the pilot-in-command shall brief that flight attendant in accordance with subsection 725.31(2).
(amended 2006/06/30)

(1) Pre-flight Briefing - All Crew Members

The contents of the pre-flight crew member briefing that involves all crew members shall include the following as appropriate:

(a) anticipated weather;

(b) anticipated flying conditions;

(d) altitudes;

(e) review of selected communication procedures;

(f) review of selected emergency procedures;

(g) review of selected safety procedures;

(h) review of selected security procedures; and
(amended 2006/06/30)

(i) any additional information necessary for the flight including information respecting unserviceable equipment or abnormalities that may affect passengers.

(2) Pre-flight Briefing - PIC to In-charge Flight Attendant or Solo Flight Attendant
(amended 2006/06/30)

The contents of a pre-flight pilot-in-command to the in-charge flight attendant or solo flight attendant briefing shall include the following:
(amended 2006/06/30)

(a) anticipated weather;

(b) anticipated flying conditions;

(d) altitudes;

(e) review of selected security procedures; and
(amended 2006/06/30)

(f) any additional information necessary for the flight including information respecting unserviceable equipment or abnormalities that may affect passengers.

(3) Pre-flight Briefing - In-charge to Cabin Crew

The contents of a pre-flight in-charge flight attendant to cabin crew briefing shall include the following:

(a) review of selected communication procedures;

(b) review of selected emergency procedures;

(d) review of selected security procedures; and
(amended 2006/06/30)

(e) any additional information necessary for the flight including information respecting unserviceable equipment or abnormalities that may affect passengers.

Information Note:
(amended 2006/06/30)

Current events and new or recently amended procedures are recommended as subjects for review during pre-flight briefings.

(4) When a flight attendant is assigned to more than one aeroplane model during a series of flights or flight segments, the crew member briefing shall include a review of selected normal and emergency procedures and safety equipment applicable to the actual aeroplane model to be operated.
(effective 2015/08/01)

725.34 Take-off Minima

The standard for take-off in IMC below the take-off weather minima specified in the Canada Air Pilot, in the equivalent foreign publication, or in the route and approach inventory or the instrument approach procedure referred to in the air operator certificate is:
(amended 2000/12/01)

(1) Take-off Minima - Reported Visibility - RVR 1200 feet (1/4 mile)

(a) the company operations manual shall contain detailed guidance on how to determine departure one engine inoperative climb gradient and obstacle clearance;

(b) an aerodrome used as take-off alternate is specified in the operational flight plan and that aerodrome is located:

(i) in the case of a twin-engined aeroplane, within the distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed; or

(ii) in the case of a three- or four-engined aircraft or where an air operator is authorized in its air operator certificate to conduct ETOPS with the type of aeroplane operated and an ETOPS service check has been completed on the aircraft, within the distance that can be flown in 120 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(c) the take-off alternate aerodrome weather minima shall meet the alternate requirements set out in the Canada Air Pilot;

(d) the runway has the following equipment in accordance with the manual of Aerodrome Standards and Recommended Practices (TP-312):

(i) serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights;

(ii) runway centre line lights; or

(iii) with runway centre line markings that are plainly visible to the pilot throughout the take-off run;

(e) the pilot-in-command is satisfied that the required RVR 1,200 feet (1/4 mile) visibility exists for the runway to be used before commencing take-off;

(f) the pilot-in-command and second-in-command attitude instruments (artificial horizons) on the aeroplane shall incorporate pitch attitude index lines in appropriate increments above and below the zero pitch reference line to at least 15°, and are capable of ensuring ready depiction of total aeroplane attitude. An approved failure warning system which will immediately detect essential instrument and equipment failures or malfunctions shall be installed and operative. For the purpose of reduced visibility take-offs, essential instruments are defined as attitude indicators, directional gyros and HSI's;

(g) the flight crew members shall be given training in accordance with section 725.124(26) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations as applicable.

(h) the chief pilot, or his or her designate, has certified in the pilot's training file that the pilot-in-command is competent to conduct an RVR 1,200 feet (1/4 mile) takeoff; and
(amended 2000/12/01)

(i) the pilot-in-command shall have at least 100 hours of pilot-in-command experience on the aeroplane type. A pilot-in-command converting onto an aeroplane type similar to that on which he had been maintaining pilot-in-command qualifications at these limits for at least 90 days prior to conversion may be authorized these limits by the air operator on completion of required line indoctrination. Similar aeroplanes shall be considered as turbo-propeller to turbo-propeller or turbo-jet to turbo-jet.

(2) Take-off Minima - Reported Visibility - RVR 600 feet

(a) the Company Operations Manual shall contain detailed guidance on how to determine departure one engine inoperative climb gradient and obstacle clearance;

(b) an aerodrome used as take-off alternate is specified in the operational flight plan and that aerodrome is located:

(i) in the case of a twin-engined aeroplane, within the distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed; or

(c) the take-off alternate aerodrome weather minima shall meet the alternate requirements set out in the Canada Air Pilot;

(d) the runway has the following equipment in accordance with the manual for Aerodrome Standards and Recommended Practices (TP-312):

(i) serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights, runway centre line lights and centre line markings that are plainly visible to the pilot throughout the take-off run;

(ii) at least two transmissometers, one situated at the approach end and one at the mid-point of the runway, each reading not less than RVR 600 feet; and

(iii) if three transmissometers are available and the mid-point transmissometer is unserviceable, take-off is authorized provided the transmissometers at the approach end and the departure end of the runway, each is reading not less than RVR 600 feet;

(e) the pilot-in-command is satisfied that the required RVR 600 feet visibility exists for the runway to be used before commencing take-off;

(f) the pilot-in-command and second-in-command attitude instruments (artificial horizons) on the aeroplane shall incorporate pitch attitude index lines in appropriate increments above and below the zero pitch reference line to at least 15°, and be capable of ensuring ready depiction of total aeroplane attitude. An approved failure warning systems which will immediately detect essential instrument and equipment failures or malfunctions shall be installed and operative. For the purpose of reduced visibility take-offs, essential instruments are defined as attitude indicators, directional gyros and HSI's;

(g) the flight crew members shall be given training in accordance with section 725.124(26) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations as applicable;

(h) the pilot-in-command, and the second-in-command if authorized by the air operator for lower than normal take-off minima, shall be checked within the preceding 12 months or as specified in an approved advanced qualification program, in an approved synthetic training device by an approved company check pilot or a Transport Canada - Civil Aviation inspector and shall be certified in their pilot training files as competent to conduct an RVR 600 feet take-off; and
(amended 2006/06/30)

725.35 No Alternate Aerodrome - IFR Flight

For an air operator of aeroplanes to qualify to conduct a flight under IFR without designating an alternate aerodrome on the flight plan, the following standard shall be met:
(amended 2000/06/01)

(1) Area of Operations

(a) for flights not more than six hours of scheduled flight time from the aerodrome of intended landing, the following requirements shall be met:
(amended 2006/06/30)

(i) the take-off aerodrome shall be situated within the North American continent, the Caribbean islands or Bermuda;
(amended 2006/06/30)

(ii) the aerodromes of intended landing authorized for these "No Alternate IFR" flights shall meet the requirements of subsection (3) below; and
(amended 2006/06/30)

(iii) provided the requirements of subsections (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) are met, the pilot-in-command may re-file "No Alternate IFR" on flights to a destination aerodrome in Canada, regardless of the location of the departure aerodrome, when within six hours of the scheduled destination aerodrome.
(amended 2006/06/30)

(b) for flights with more than six hours but not more than eight hours of scheduled flight time from the aerodrome of intended landing, the following requirements shall be met:
(amended 2006/06/30)

(i) the take-off aerodrome shall be situated within the North American continent;

(ii) the aerodrome of intended landing shall be situated within the North American continent except Mexico;

(iii) the aerodrome of intended landing shall be pre-approved by Transport Canada and listed in the air operator's company operations manual, subject to empirical data provided by the air operator to support the accuracy and efficiency of the specific aerodrome forecast (TAF) for the last three years;

(iv) the aerodrome of intended landing authorized for these no alternate IFR flights shall meet the requirements of subsection (3) below; and

(v) at a point between four and six hours from the aerodrome of intended landing, the PIC shall obtain confirmation from the air operator's operational control that the conditions at the aerodrome of intended landing still meet the provision of this standard.

(2) Weather Requirements

For at least one (1) hour before and until one (1) hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome of intended landing, there shall be, in respect of that aerodrome:
(amended 2000/06/01)

(a) no risk of fog or other restriction to visibility, including precipitation, forecast or reported, below 3 miles;

(b) no risk of thunderstorms isolated or otherwise forecast or reported;

(c) a forecast ceiling of at least 1,000 feet above FAF altitude and a visibility of at least 3 miles (using the FAF of the destination IFR approach with the second lowest useable limits), or a ceiling of at least 1,500 feet and a visibility of at least 6 miles; and
(amended 2006/06/30)

(d) no risk of freezing precipitation forecast or reported.
(amended 2000/06/01)

(3) Aerodrome of Intended Landing - Requirements

The aerodrome of intended landing shall be equipped with:

(a) at least two (2) separate runways each of which shall be operational and suitable for a safe landing for the aeroplane type, taking into consideration the approved operational limitations;

NOTE:

The reciprocal of one runway is not acceptable as the second runway.

(b) at least two useable and independent IFR approach aids and two independent and useable instrument approach procedures; and

(c) emergency or standby electrical power supply in support of the main electrical power supply used to operate all equipment and facilities that are essential to the safe landing of the aeroplane, whether such landing be by day or by night;

(4) Flight Dispatch Requirements

The Operation Control System shall be Type A or Type B (as applicable).

(5) Fuel Requirements

The minimum fuel required for a no alternate IFR flight plan must meet the requirements of sections 602.88 and 705.25 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations.
(amended 2000/06/01)

(6) Aerodrome Familiarization

Pilots shall be thoroughly familiar with all suitable diversionary aerodromes which are available (within the fuel and oil reserve carried) in respect of any flight operated on a "no alternate IFR" basis.

(7) Island Destination
(amended 2000/06/01)

In addition, where the flight is to a destination aerodrome located on an island, the following standards shall be met:

(a) Minimum Fuel on Board Requirements

The minimum fuel to be carried on board an aeroplane shall include:

(i) taxi fuel,

(ii) fuel to destination,

(iii) contingency fuel, and

(iv) additional contingency fuel or enroute fuel reserve or remote destination reserve fuel to hold for two hours at 10,000 feet at holding fuel consumption after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome, whichever is the greater.

(b) Designated Alternate Aerodrome

An alternate aerodrome shall be designated in accordance with the requirements of CAR 602.122 and shall be maintained until a point, known for the purposes of this paragraph, as the point-of-no-return (PNR), on the selected route where the fuel required to reach the alternate aerodrome and hold at 1,500 feet above the alternate aerodrome for a period of 30 minutes at holding speed under standard temperature conditions is equal to the fuel required under paragraph (a) above.

The following weather requirements shall apply:

(i) the weather minima applicable to the designated alternate aerodrome specified in accordance with paragraph (b) of this subsection meets the requirements of CAR 602.123,

(ii) the destination aerodrome is served by a terminal forecast valid from the time of take-off from the departure aerodrome until 2 hours after the estimated time of arrival (ETA) at the destination aerodrome,

(iii) during the period of 2 hours before ETA until 2 hours after ETA, there is, in respect of that aerodrome:

(A) a forecast ceiling of at least 1,000 feet above the anticipated approach Final Approach Fix (FAF) altitude and a visibility of at least 3 miles or a ceiling of at least 1,500 feet and a visibility of at least 6 miles,

(B) no risk of fog forecast or reported, below 3 miles,

(C) no other restrictions to visibility, including precipitation, forecast below 3 miles unless that restriction to visibility is forecast to be a PROB or TEMPO,

(D) no thunderstorms forecast unless forecast to be PROB or TEMPO, and

(E) no freezing precipitation forecast or reported,

NOTE:

Forecast conditions normally apply for the time period of 2 hours prior to ETA until 2 hours after ETA. Reported conditions apply for that portion of the flight that the designated alternate is maintained in accordance with paragraph (b) of this subsection and less than 2 hours from the ETA at the destination aerodrome.

(iv) hourly destination weather reports are obtained until reaching the PNR and if any forecast PROB or TEMPO condition is reported in two consecutive hourly reports, an updated destination forecast is obtained prior to proceeding beyond the PNR.

(d) Flight Dispatch Requirements

An efficient two-way point-to-point and ground-to-air communication system shall be established between dispatch agencies along the route and the aeroplane.

(e) Aerodrome Familiarization

Pilots shall be thoroughly familiar with the pertinent information for all suitable designated alternate aerodromes which are available during the flight within the fuel and oil reserve carried.

725.37 Routes in Uncontrolled Airspace

For an air operator to establish routes in uncontrolled airspace the following standards shall be met:

(1) A minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) shall be established for each route segment by the use of aeronautical charts and the Canada Flight Supplement for updating of significant obstructions as follows:

(a) for flight under IFR a minimum altitude of 2000 feet above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal distance of 10 miles from the centre line of route;

(b) for flight at night in VFR conditions a minimum altitude of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle located within 3 miles from the centre line of the route;

(2) For each route segment a minimum enroute altitude (MEA) shall be established which meets or exceeds the minimum obstruction clearance altitude and assures navigational signal coverage. For line of sight navigation aid reception distance for ground installed aids, the minimum reception altitude may be calculated by calculating the square root of an altitude above the navigation aid and multiplying the result by 1.25 (Sq. root 3000 ft. is 54.7 x 1.25 = 68 miles). The MEA will be established to the nearest higher 100 foot increment.

(3) Each route shall include:

(a) The FROM/TO route segment;

(b) track;

(d) MEA;

(e) distance between fixes or waypoints; and

(f) navigation aids.

(4) The air operator shall maintain a record of its company routes in a form and format similar to the catalogue of approved routes.

Provided the above procedures are followed, an air operator's pilot may use routes that are not yet contained in the record of company routes.

(5) Prior to initial use of other than a publicly available navigation aid, permission of the owner/operator shall be obtained and retained in company records. No VFR at night or IFR flights shall commence unless the navigation aids upon which the route is predicated are in satisfactory operating condition or the flight is conducted using an approved long range navigation system.

When company routes are predicated on other than a publicly available navigation aid and arrangements have not been made with the owner/operator to advise when the navigation aid is out of service, instructions to pilots shall be included on how, and whom to contact, to confirm that the navigation aid is in service.

(6) The air operator's company operations manual shall be amended to outline the above procedures and information for pilot guidance.

(7) The flight visibility shall not be less than 3 miles for flights in VFR at night.

725.39 Weight and Balance Control

The weight and balance system required by section 705.39 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations shall specify for each flight how the air operator will establish and be responsible for the accuracy of:

(1) aeroplane basic empty weight and centre of gravity determined in accordance with the Airplane Flight Manual;

(2) aeroplane operational empty weight and centre of gravity. The aeroplane operational empty weight is the actual weight of the aeroplane before loading for dispatch consisting of the aeroplane basic empty weight and may include removable equipment, flight crew members (including baggage), crew members (including baggage and supplies) water, toilet fluids and chemicals, oil, unusable fuel and emergency equipment and shall be defined by the air operator;

(3) weight of passengers, carry-on baggage and checked baggage, determined either by actual weight, by using approved standard weights or by using approved survey weights, and the actual weight of cargo;

(4) weight of the fuel load determined by using either the actual specific gravity or a standard specific gravity;

(5) aeroplane loading including, but not limited to, compartment weight and bulk cargo limits, floor loading limits, cargo restraint and unit load device/pallet loading considering weight and centre of gravity limits;

(6) aeroplane zero fuel weight;

(7) location of the centre of gravity to include the longitudinal position and where required, lateral and vertical positions;

(8) preparation and disposition of all required documentation whether by the air operator or other qualified personnel authorized by the air operator; and

(9) the training, both initial and recurrent, of all air operator personnel and other qualified personnel authorized by the air operator with duties and responsibilities in this system. The training shall be in the appropriate parts of the company operations manual.

The weight and balance computation may be incorporated in the operational flight plan or be a separate form.

725.40 Passenger and Cabin Safety Procedures

(1) Safe Movement of Passengers to and from the Aeroplane (refers to paragraph 705.40(1)(a) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

The procedures for the safe movement of passengers to and from the aeroplane shall include:

(a) wherever possible, aeroplanes are parked in a location that avoids passenger exposure to hazardous conditions;

(b) announcements to embarking/disembarking passengers as warranted to alert them to hazardous conditions or dangers that may be encountered during embarkment/disembarkment and/or enroute to or from the airside exit/entrance points, and advising them to follow any directions provided outside the aeroplane;

(c) adequate guidance, and where necessary an escort, provided to passengers so as to ensure that their movements while airside are properly controlled. The responsibility for this shall be clearly defined and the controls shall ensure:

(i) passengers are directed along the correct and safe route between the aeroplane and the airside entrance/exit point, and a sufficient number of personnel are assigned to exercise surveillance and control of passengers and to give prompt attention to stragglers where necessary;

(ii) an escort is assigned to control passenger movements when the route to or from the aeroplane is congested by other aircraft or vehicles or when required by the Air Carrier Security Measures; and

(iii) passengers are not exposed to hazards from aircraft operations, fuelling equipment, exposure to jet blasts, engines, rotors or propellers, or to the hazards posed by lighting conditions, obstacles positioned along the route or unsafe surface or stairway conditions;

(d) smoking restrictions are enforced;

(e) personal headsets that are used with personal entertainment systems that decrease awareness of other traffic or limit reception of audible direction or warning signals, are not worn;
(amended 1999/09/01)

(f) clearly assigning the responsibility for the opening/closing and the locking/unlocking of terminal building doors, to enable embarking/disembarking passengers to access the apron or terminal. Where this responsibility is assigned to persons other than the air operator's personnel or those contracted by the air operator, the crew members are so advised;

(g) where conditions so warrant, the embarking or disembarking activity is postponed until a safe walking zone is prepared; and

(h) unsatisfactory or hazardous conditions are reported to the responsible authority.

The procedures shall not preclude the safe embarkment and disembarkment of all passengers.

The procedures shall be incorporated in training programs and training will be provided to crew members, ground handling and passenger agent staff (including contract personnel) involved with the transfer of passengers between the terminal building and the aeroplane.

The training will be adequate to ensure that personnel are fully aware of their responsibilities, are able to perform their assigned duties for the safety of airside passengers and know to whom the air operator personnel report in the application of their responsibilities. Where there is an overlap in the duties/responsibilities assigned to personnel, the training will ensure that the trainees know the relationship of their duties/responsibilities to those of the other personnel involved.

(2) Fuelling with Passengers on Board (refers to subsection 705.40(3) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

Aeroplanes may be fuelled with passengers embarking, disembarking, or on board under the following conditions:

(a) in order to ensure that crew members receive prompt notification of a situation threatening safety such as major fuel spill or a fire, two way communication is maintained between the ground crew supervising the fuelling and the qualified personnel on board the aeroplane so that the aeroplane can be deplaned or evacuated as necessary.

(b) a means of communication among the qualified personnel on board the aeroplane, ground/maintenance crews and fuelling agencies is determined and established and the procedures are provided to the appropriate personnel.

(c) the aeroplane engines are not running unless the aircraft incorporates a propeller brake and the brake is set. The Aircraft Flight Manual must refer to the propeller brake/engine as an auxiliary power unit (APU).

(d) During the fuelling process:

(i) aeroplane ground power generators or other electrical ground power supplies are not being connected or disconnected;

(ii) combustion heaters installed on the aeroplane (e.g. wing and tail surface heaters, integral cabin heaters) are not operated;

(iii) other combustion heaters used in the vicinity of the aeroplane are manufactured to CSA or ULC standards and approved in accordance with the Fire Commissioner of Canada for use in hazardous atmosphere;

(iv) known high energy equipment such as High Frequency (HF) radios are not operated, unless in accordance with the aeroplane manufacturer's approved flight manual where the manual contains procedures for the use of this equipment during fuelling;

(v) weather-mapping radar equipment in the aeroplane is not operated unless in accordance with the manufacturer's approved aeroplane flight manual where the manual contains procedures for use during fuelling;

(vi) aeroplane batteries are not being removed or installed;

(vii) external battery chargers are not being connected, operated or disconnected;

(viii) aeroplane-borne auxiliary power units which have an efflux discharging into the zone are not started after filler caps are removed or fuelling connections are made;

(ix) if an auxiliary power unit (APU) is stopped for any reason during fuelling it shall not be restarted until the flow of fuel has ceased and there is no risk of igniting fuel vapours, however, the APU may be operated in accordance with the manufacturer's approved aeroplane flight manual if the manual contains procedures for starting the APU during fuelling;

(x) electric tools or similar tools likely to produce sparks or arcs are not being used; and

(xi) photographic equipment is not used within 10 ft. (3m) of the fuelling equipment or the fill or vent points of the aeroplane fuel systems;

(e) fuelling is immediately suspended when there are lightning discharges within 8 km of the aerodrome;

(f) the aeroplane is fuelled in accordance with manufacturer's procedures for that type of aeroplane;

(g) the aeroplane emergency lighting system is armed or on;

(h) "No Smoking" signs on board the aeroplane are illuminated, as applicable;

(i) procedures are established to ensure that passengers do not smoke or otherwise produce sources of ignition;
(effective 2019/08/16)

(j) a minimum of two exits are designated evacuation exits during fuelling; one of which must be the entry doors through which the passengers embarked;

(k) the designated evacuation exits during fuelling are identified by aeroplane type and published in the company operations manual, and are clear and available for immediate use by passengers and crew members should an evacuation be required;

(l) the air operator has procedures in place to ensure that there is a ready escape route from each designated evacuation exit during fuelling, and that designated evacuation exits which are equipped with slides have the slides armed or a crew member is in the immediate vicinity to arm the slides if required;

(m) a means of evacuation such as a deployed integral stair, a loading stair or stand, a loading bridge or a passenger transfer vehicle (PTV) is in place at the aeroplane door used for the embarking and disembarking of passengers and is free of obstruction and available for immediate use by the aeroplane occupants if necessary;

(n) for aeroplanes requiring a minimum cabin crew of one, a qualified person trained in the operation and use of emergency exits and in emergency evacuation procedures who is ready to initiate and direct an evacuation is at or near the passenger entry door;

(o) for aeroplanes requiring a minimum cabin crew of more than one, at least the minimum number of flight attendants for the aeroplane type or the number of passengers on board, whichever is greater, are on board and positioned at or near each designated evacuation exit during fuelling. Flight attendants may be replaced by an equivalent number of other staff provided that they have successfully completed the air operator's approved emergency evacuation procedures training for that aeroplane type;

(p) flight crew members inform the in-charge flight attendant when they are leaving the aeroplane;

(q) where desirable for climatic reasons, and provided a flight crew member is on board or a means of communication is available to the flight attendants, an aeroplane embarking door, that is inward opening or that can be fully opened to the exterior without repositioning of loading stairs or stand, may be closed and latched if necessary to keep it closed, but may not be locked; and

(r) procedures are established to ensure that flight attendants or qualified persons replacing flight attendants in accordance with paragraph (o) are made aware of when fuelling will take place.

(3) (deleted 2019/08/16)

725.41 Flight Attendant Stations

(1) Standard for Approval of Flight Attendant Stations

(a) The flight attendant stations for flight attendants required by section 705.201 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations shall be evenly distributed throughout the cabin and shall:
(effective 2015/08/01)

(i) be located in the passenger cabin near floor level emergency exits or, because of exit type and distribution or the access to the communication system, at some other approved exit;

(ii) be positioned so that the seat will not interfere with the use of a passageway or exit when the seat is not in use;

(iii) provide access to the communication system when the flight attendant is seated, except when the communication system and flight attendant seat are installed in accordance with the original type certification basis of the aeroplane; and

(iv) be located to minimize the probability of injury to the occupant from items dislodged in a galley or from a stowage compartment or serving cart. Secondary latching mechanisms must be used to prevent items from being dislodged.

(b) Each aeroplane shall, for each flight attendant required by section 705.201 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations, be equipped with either a forward or aft facing seat designed to at least the inertial load factors established under the original certification basis of the aeroplane. The seat shall provide an energy absorbing rest to support the arms, shoulders, head, and spine.
(effective 2015/08/01)

(c) There shall be a means to secure each combined safety belt and shoulder harness when not in use so as to prevent interference with rapid egress in an emergency.

(d) Flight attendant stations shall be approved for use in order of priority based on the minimum crew required for that aeroplane up to the maximum number of flight attendants carried.

(e) Where the passenger entry door is an emergency exit, the flight attendant seat located nearest to it shall be the primary station. All other exits shall be prioritized in the following manner:

(i) no two opposite and no two adjacent floor level exits shall be unassigned;

(ii) flight attendant seats located adjacent to communication panels, evacuation horns, or the emergency light switch shall have a higher priority than seats that are not so located; and

(iii) the lowest priority is an aisle passenger seat located at a Type III window exit.

(f) Notwithstanding (e), the approval of the flight attendant stations shall consider the emergency procedures for the aeroplane type/model for the operator as well as conditions imposed during the original type certification of the aeroplane.

(2) Standard for occupancy of Flight Attendant Seats

The air operator may permit persons other than assigned flight attendants to occupy an available flight attendant seat under the following conditions:

(a) A crew member employed by the air operator, but not assigned as a member of the operating crew for the flight in question, may occupy an available flight attendant seat when:

(i) there are no passenger seats available;

(ii) the person is wearing the company uniform, or is appropriately identified and is briefed on:

(A) the operation and use of the flight attendant seat and restraint system;

(B) the location and use of the oxygen system at the flight attendant seat where applicable;

(D) the person's responsibilities and actions during an emergency.

(b) A Cabin Safety Inspector carrying out an in-flight cabin inspection, may occupy an available flight attendant seat only when:

(i) an inaccurate load forecast for a multi-sector flight results in the displacement of the Inspector by a revenue passenger or a deadheading crew member;

(ii) in extenuating circumstances when the completion of the in-flight cabin inspection is mandatory and alternate seating is not available; or

(iii) The Inspector has been briefed on:

(A) the operation and use of the flight attendant seat and restraint system;

(B) the location and use of the oxygen system at the flight attendant seat where applicable;

(D) the person's responsibilities and actions during an emergency.

(i) a declared emergency exists;

(ii) the person is an able-bodied person displaced from a passenger seat to a flight attendant seat to enhance evacuation management; and

(iii) the person is briefed by a qualified crew member regarding his/her responsibilities and actions.

725.42 Carry-on Baggage

The objective of the carry-on baggage control program shall be to prevent the boarding of carry-on baggage which will exceed the weight, size, shape, and total volume limitations of the approved stowage areas of the aeroplane. The approved carry-on baggage control program shall:

(1) identify who is responsible for the acceptance or refusal of carry-on baggage;

(2) identify and publicize the criteria that will be used for the acceptance or refusal of carry-on baggage;

(3) identify the procedures that will be used in acceptance or refusal of carry-on baggage;

(4) identify the locations and under what conditions the screening will take place;

(5) include the training for all involved employees and agents;

(6) be published in the company operations manual and flight attendant manual as well as any other appropriate location; and

(7) contain at least the following elements:

(a) at least one carry-on baggage control point shall be established;

(b) the control point shall be located outside the aeroplane;

(c) each article of carry-on baggage shall be assessed by an employee of the air operator prior to reaching the aeroplane;

(d) the air operator shall establish the maximum dimensions of articles or combination of articles that can be safely stowed on board the flight;

(e) the air operator shall establish the maximum number of articles or combinations of articles that can be carried on board an aeroplane per passenger for the flight. This allowance shall include duty free articles;

(f) the procedures and locations for stowage of crew baggage;

(g) the means by which passengers will be informed of specific carry-on baggage requirements or limitations for the flight;

(h) the procedures for acceptance of stand-by passengers carry-on baggage and carry-on baggage from connecting flights of differing aeroplane sizes;

(i) the procedures for handling unusual or fragile items including extremely delicate scientific instruments, human organs for transplant, articles which exceed the maximum dimensions, passenger mobility aids, or medical equipment; and

(j) the procedures for the proper stowage of carry-on baggage on board the aeroplane.

725.43 Briefing of Passengers

(1) Standard Safety Briefing

The standard safety briefing shall consist of an oral briefing provided by a crew member or by audio or audio-visual means in both official languages which includes the following information as applicable to the aeroplane, equipment, and operation:

(a) Prior to Take-off

(i) when, where, why and how carry-on baggage is required to be stowed;

(ii) the fastening, unfastening, adjusting and general use of safety belts or safety harnesses;

(iii) when seat backs must be secured in the upright position and chair tables must be stowed;

(iv) the location of emergency exits;
(amended 1999/09/01)

(v) the Floor Proximity Emergency Escape Path lighting system;

(vi) the location, purpose of, and advisability of reading the safety features card;

(vii) the regulatory requirement to obey crew instructions regarding safety belts and no smoking or Fasten Seat Belt signs and No Smoking signs and the location of these signs;

(viii) where flight attendants are not required, the location of any emergency equipment the passenger may have a need for in an emergency situation such as the ELT, fire extinguisher, survival equipment (including the means to access if in a locked compartment), first aid kits, and life rafts;

(ix) the portable electronic devices that may be used, and when they may be used;
(effective 2019/11/24)

(x) the location, and operation of the fixed passenger oxygen system, including the location and presentation of the masks; the actions to be performed by the passenger in order to obtain the mask, activate the flow of oxygen and correctly don and secure the mask. This will include a demonstration of their location, method of donning including the use of elastic band, and operation, and instruction on the priority for persons assisting others. This briefing may be completed after take-off but prior to reaching 25,000 feet;

(xi) the location, and use of life preservers, including how to remove from stowage/packaging and a demonstration of their location, method of donning and inflation, and when to inflate life preservers. This briefing may be completed after take-off prior to the over water portion of the flight; and

(xii) the fact that passengers may draw to the attention of a cabin crew member any concerns relating to safety.
(amended 2000/12/01)

(b) After Take-off

(i) that smoking is prohibited; and

(ii) the advisability of using safety-belts or safety harnesses during flight;

(i) when the use of seat belts is required; and

(ii) when the level of turbulence is anticipated to exceed light, the requirement to stow carry-on baggage;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(d) Prior to Landing

(i) carry on baggage stowage requirements;

(ii) correct seat back and chair table positioning;

(iii) on flights scheduled for four hours duration or more, the location of emergency exits; and

(iv) the seat belt requirement;

(e) prior to passenger disembarkment, the no smoking requirement, the safest direction and most hazard-free route for passenger movement away from the aeroplane following disembarkment; and any dangers associated with the aeroplane type such as pitot tube locations, propellers, or engine intakes.

The safety message of the briefing may not be diluted by the inclusion of any service information or advertising that would affect the integrity of the safety briefing.

(2) Individual Safety Briefing

The individual safety briefing shall include:

(a) any information contained in the standard safety briefing and the safety features card that the passenger would not be able to receive during the normal conduct of that safety briefing; and

(b) additional information applicable to the needs of that person as follows:

(i) the most appropriate brace position for that passenger in consideration of his/her condition, injury, stature, and/or seat orientation and pitch;

(ii) the location to place any service animal that accompanies the passenger;

(iii) for a mobility restricted passenger who needs assistance in moving expeditiously to an exit during an emergency:

(A) a determination of what assistance the person would require to get to an exit;

(B) the route to the most appropriate exit;

(D) a determination of the most appropriate manner of assisting the passenger;

(iv) for a visually impaired person:

(A) detailed information of and facilitating a tactile familiarization with the equipment that he/she may be required to use;

(B) advising the person where to stow his/her cane if applicable;

(D) an explanation of the features of the exits; and

(E) if requested, a tactile familiarization of the exit;

(v) for a comprehension restricted person: while using the safety features card, pointing out the emergency exits and alternate exits to use, and any equipment that he/she may be required to use;

(vi) for persons with a hearing impairment:

(A) while using the safety features card, point out the emergency exits and alternate exits to use, and any other equipment that the person may be required to use;

(B) communicating detail information by pointing, face-to-face communication permitting speech reading, pen and paper, through an interpreter or through their attendant;

(vii) for a passenger who is responsible for another person on board, information pertinent to the needs of the other person as applicable:

(A) In the case of an infant

(I) seat belt instructions;

(II) method of holding infant for take-off and landing;

(III) instructions pertaining to the use of a child restraint system;

(IV) oxygen mask donning instructions;

(V) recommended brace position; and

(VI) location and use of life preservers, as required.

(B) In the case of any other person

(I) oxygen mask donning instructions;

(II) instructions pertaining to the use of a child restraint system; and

(III) evacuation responsibilities;

(viii) for an unaccompanied minor, instructions to pay close attention to the normal safety briefing and to follow all instructions.

A passenger that has been provided with an individual safety briefing need not be re-briefed following a change in crew if the crew member that provided the individual safety briefing has advised a member of the new crew of the contents of that briefing including any information respecting the special needs of that passenger.

A passenger may decline an individual safety briefing.

(3) Passenger Preparation for Emergency Landing

The emergency briefing provided in the event of an emergency where time and circumstances permit shall consist of instructions pertaining to:

(a) safety belts/safety harnesses;

(b) seat backs and chair tables;

(d) safety features cards;

(e) brace position (how to brace, when to assume position, how long to remain);

(f) if applicable, life preservers; and

(g) location of exits; and

(h) if applicable, evacuation procedures for an occupant of a child restraint system.
(amended 1999/09/01)

725.44 Safety Features Card and Supplemental Briefing Card

(amended 2009/05/28)

(1) The safety features card shall contain the following information as applicable to the aeroplane and equipment carried:

(a) general safety information including:

(i) smoking is prohibited on board the aeroplane;

(ii) each type of safety belt or safety harness installed for passenger use, including when to use, and how to fasten, tighten and release;

(iii) when and where carry on baggage must be stowed for take-off and landing; and any other related requirements and restrictions pertinent to that particular aeroplane; and

(iv) correct positioning of seat backs and chair tables for take-off and landing;

(b) emergency procedures and equipment including:

(i) fixed passenger oxygen system showing:

(A) mask location and presentation; the actions to be performed by the seated passenger in order to obtain the mask, activate the flow of oxygen and correctly don and secure the mask; and

(B) priority for persons assisting others with oxygen;

(ii) for aeroplanes where flight attendants are not required:

(A) location of first aid kits;

(B) location of fire extinguishers that would be accessible to the passengers;

(D) location of survival equipment, and if the stowage compartment is locked, the means of access or location of the key;

(iii) passenger brace position for impact, as appropriate for each type of seat and restraint system installed for passenger use; including the brace position for an adult holding an infant;

(iv) the location, operation and method of using each emergency exit type on the aeroplane, including identification of those emergency exits known to be rendered unusable in a ditching or because of the aeroplane configuration such as a combi configuration;

(v) the safest direction and most hazard-free escape route for passenger movement away from the aeroplane following evacuation;

(vi) the attitude of the aeroplane while floating;

(vii) location of life preservers and correct procedures for removal from stowage/packaging; donning and use of the life jacket for adult, child and infant users including when to inflate;

(viii) location and use of life rafts;

(ix) location, removal and use of flotation devices; and

(x) the form, function, colour and location of any Floor Proximity Emergency Escape Path lighting system that is installed.

(c) The safety features card shall bear the name of the air operator and the aeroplane type and shall contain only safety information.

(d) The safety information provided by the card shall:

(i) be accurate for the aeroplane type and configuration in which it is carried and in respect of the equipment carried;

(ii) be presented with clear separation between each instructional procedure. All actions required to complete a multi-action procedure to be presented in correct sequence and the sequence of actions to be clearly identified; and

(iii) be depicted in a clear and distinct manner.

(2) The supplemental briefing cards shall contain at least the following information:
(amended 2009/05/28)

(a) a statement that the crew member will give the passenger an individual briefing before departure;

(b) how to fasten, adjust and unfasten the safety belt;

(d) a brief description of how to assume the brace position;

(e) an instruction to become familiar with the location of emergency exits, and to receive information on flotation equipment and oxygen masks carried on the aircraft; and

(f) an instruction to ensure that crew members are aware of what assistance the passenger may need in the event of an emergency.

725.48 Instrument Approach Procedures

(amended 2006/12/01)

Stabilized Constant-Descent-Angle (SCDA) Non-Precision Approach

In order to conduct a stabilized constant-descent-angle (SCDA) non-precision approach, the following requirements shall be met:

(a) the air operator's flight crew training and qualifications program includes SCDA non-precision approach in accordance with section 705.124 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations;

(b) the air operator's standard operating procedures incorporate SCDA non-precision approach in accordance with section 705.138 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations, and the procedures include a specified amount to be added to the MDA to compensate for the additional height loss during the missed approach initiation during approaches where

(i) there is a failure of an aircraft system,

(ii) the aircraft is above normal maximum landing weight,

(iii) the aircraft landing weight is limited by aborted landing climb performance, or

(iv) height loss could be expected to be larger than normal;

(d) the descent angle from the planned final approach fix (FAF) crossing altitude to the target touchdown point on the runway is not less than 2.9 degrees and not more than 3.5 degrees.

Division IV - Aeroplane Performance Operating Limitations

725.54 Exceptions

The standards for operating an aeroplane without fully complying with Sections 705.55 through 705.61 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations are as follows:

(1) General Requirements

(a) Operations Using Other than Approved Performance Data - Contaminated Runway

The standard for operating an aircraft to or from a contaminated runway, where the operator elects to use performance data from a source other than the Aeroplane Flight Manual is as follows:

(i) The aeroplane shall be operated in accordance with a contaminated runway operations supplement to the Flight Manual that has been prepared or approved by the aircraft manufacturer;

(ii) Take-off weight limitations may be based on an engine-out condition using a 15-foot screen height, provided the area to be used for first segment climb contains no obstacles taller than 15 feet;

(iii) Where the manufacturer permits, stopping distance calculations may include credit for reverse thrust on the operative engine;

(iv) Operation at reduced thrust settings shall not be permitted, and Vmc shall be based on full-rated thrust;

(v) The Company Operations Manual shall set out procedures for operations using contaminated runways; and

(vi) Pilot and, where applicable, dispatcher ground training shall address contaminated runway operations.

(b) Operations Using Other than Approved Performance Data - Reciprocating Engined Aeroplanes in Cargo-only Operations

The standard for operating a reciprocating engined aeroplane during cargo-only operations from or to unprepared surfaces, when such operations are not specifically addressed in the Aeroplane Flight Manual is as follows:

The air operator's Company Operations Manual shall set out the program for operations involving unprepared surfaces. The program shall include:

(i) pilot-in-command training, checking and experience requirements:

(A) at least 100 hours on type;

(B) completed a course of ground and flight training covering topics such as takeoff and landing surface characteristics, obstacle assessment and interpretation of pertinent aeroplane data;

(D) passed a line check covering unprepared surface operations;

(ii) procedures for company operational approval for unprepared surface operations; and

(iii) procedures for assessing and operating from/to unprepared surfaces and unfamiliar approach and departure routes.

(2) Take-off Weight Limitations - Accelerate-Stop Distance

The standard for operating a reciprocating engined aeroplane where the Accelerate-Stop Distance Required exceeds the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available requires the air operator to prevent more than 9 passenger seats from being occupied.

(3) Net Take-off Flight Path - Visual Obstacle Avoidance

The standard for determining Net Take-off Flight Path for a reciprocating engined aeroplane when visual obstacle avoidance is possible is as follows:

(a) Obstacle Assessment

(i) The air operator shall obtain the best available data concerning obstacles in the proposed take-off path. Transient obstacles (such as construction equipment or moored watercraft, etc.) shall be considered when they are estimated to lie within 300 feet of the centreline of the proposed takeoff path; and

(ii) Where the precise height, bearing and distance of an object is not known (such as objects depicted on a topographical map), the air operator shall use a reasonable estimate for performance calculations. Calculations shall clearly indicate where estimated information is used;

b) Departure Planning

(i) The Operations Manager or his/her delegate shall establish a company engine-out departure plan using procedures set out in the Company Operations Manual, and including at least the following:

(A) obstacle assessment;

(B) aeroplane performance, including turn radii; and

NOTE:

In all cases the air operator shall retain the departure plan for audit purposes.

(ii) Prior to commencing a take-off, the pilot-in-command shall, in consideration of the current winds, density altitude and aeroplane weight, satisfy himself or herself that the departure plan to be followed in the event of an engine failure on take-off avoids all obstacles in the departure path by either 35 feet vertically or 300 feet horizontally.

Division V - Aeroplane Equipment Requirements

725.81 Cargo and Baggage Compartment Fire Protection

(amended 2003/12/01)

Interpretation

(1) In this section,

"Class D cargo or baggage compartment" - means a Class D cargo or baggage compartment as that expression is defined in paragraph 525.857(d) of the Airworthiness Manual which was in effect on January 1, 1987; (soute à fret ou à bagages de classe D)

Information Note

Paragraph 525.857(d) of the Airworthiness Manual which was in effect on January 1, 1987 is reproduced below for the sake of convenience:

"(d) Class D.

A Class D cargo or baggage compartment is one in which:

(1) A fire occurring in it will be completely confined without endangering the safety of the airplane or the occupants;

(2) There are means to exclude hazardous quantities of smoke, flames, or other noxious gases, from any compartment occupied by the crew or passengers;

(3) Ventilation and drafts are controlled within each compartment so that any fire likely to occur in the compartment will not progress beyond safe limits;

(4) [Reserved]

(5) Consideration is given to the effect of heat within the compartment on adjacent critical parts of the airplane.

[(6) The compartment volume does not exceed 1,000 cubic feet.] For compartments of 500 cu. ft. or less, an airflow of 1500 cu. ft. per hour is acceptable."

"liner" - includes any design feature, such as joints and fasteners, affecting the capability of the liner of a cargo or baggage compartment to safely contain a fire. (revêtement intérieur)

General

(2) Each Class D cargo or baggage compartment shall meet:

(a) the requirements applicable to Class C compartments set out in paragraph 525.857(c) and in section 525.858 of the standards, or

(b) for an all-cargo aeroplane, the requirements applicable to Class C compartments set out in paragraph 525.857(c) and in section 525.858 of the standards, or the requirements applicable to Class E compartments set out in paragraph 525.857(e) and in section 525.858 of the standards.

Liner

(3) Each Class C cargo or baggage compartment referred to in section 525.857(d) of the standards or each Class D cargo or baggage compartment, having a volume greater than 5.66 m³ (200 ft³) shall be equipped with ceiling and sidewall liner panels that are constructed of:

(a) materials which meet the test requirements set out in Chapter 525, Appendix F, Part III, of the standards; or

(b) optionally, for liner installations approved by the Minister prior to June 1, 2004, glass fiber reinforced resin or aluminum.

Division VI - Emergency Equipment

725.90 Deleted

(effective 2020/12/09)

725.91 Emergency Medical Kit

For aeroplanes with more than one hundred (100) passenger seats, an emergency medical kit must be carried and shall contain as a minimum, the following:

Items	Quantity
a) Sphygmomanometer	1
b) Stethoscope	1
c) Syringes (sizes necessary to administer required drugs)	4
d) Needles (sizes necessary to administer required drugs) and one safe disposal unit (amended 2005/06/01)	6
e) 50% dextrose injection, 50cc	1
f) Epinephrine/Adrenalin 1:1000, single dose ampoule or equivalent (amended 2005/06/01)	4 (amended 2005/06/01)
g) Diphenhydramine HCl injection, single dose ampoule or equivalent	2
h) Nitroglycerin (amended 2000/12/01)	10 tablets or equivalent (amended 2000/12/01)
i) Protective non-permeable latex gloves or equivalent, disposable (amended 2005/06/01)	2 pairs (amended 2005/06/01)
j) Bronchodilator inhaler (metered dose or equivalent) (amended 2005/06/01)	1 (amended 2005/06/01)
k) Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) (amended 2005/06/01)	4 (amended 2005/06/01)
l) (i) CPR mask with an oxygen port and (ii) valves (amended 2005/06/01)	1 2 (amended 2005/06/01)
m) Intravenous (IV) administration kit (incl. Alcohol sponges, tape, bandage scissors and tourniquet) (amended 2005/06/01)	1 (amended 2005/06/01)
n) appropriate intravenous (IV) solution (e.g. normal saline 0.9%(500cc) (amended 2005/06/01)	1 (amended 2005/06/01)
o) (i) Airways, oropharyngeal (3 sizes) or (ii) Ambu bag (amended 2005/06/01)	1 set 1 (amended 2005/06/01)
p) Atropine (0.4-0.6 mg per ml, single dose ampoule or equiv.) (amended 2005/06/01)	1 (amended 2005/06/01)
q) Basic instructions for use of the drugs in the kit. (amended 2005/06/01)	1 (amended 2005/06/01)

725.95 Deleted

(effective 2020/12/09)

Division VII - Personnel Requirements

[725.104 reserved]

725.106 Pilot Qualifications

(1) Training Requirements (refers to subparagraph 705.106(1)(b)(iii) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

Training requirements specified in subparagraph 705.106(1)(b)(iii) Canadian Aviation Regulations are initial training on type, regaining competency training, or annual training.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(2) Pilot Proficiency Check (refers to paragraph 705.106(1)(c) Canadian Aviation Regulations)

(a) The pilot proficiency check (PPC) shall be conducted in accordance with Schedule I, Schedule II or Schedule III of this Section.

(b) All of the manoeuvres required to satisfy renewal of an Instrument Rating shall be part of the pilot proficiency check.

(c) A pilot proficiency check shall be conducted in a manner that enables the pilot to demonstrate the knowledge and the skill respecting:

(i) the air operator's aeroplane, its systems and components;

(ii) proper control of airspeed, direction, altitude, attitude and configuration of the aeroplane, in accordance with normal, abnormal and emergency procedures and limitations set out in the aeroplane flight manual, aeroplane operating manual, (if applicable), the air operator's standard operating procedures, the check list, and any other information relating to the operation of the aeroplane type;

(iii) departure, enroute and arrival instrument procedures and other applicable procedures; and

(iv) adherence to approved procedures.

(d) Initial and recurrent Pilot Proficiency Checks shall be conducted on a combination of a Flight Training Device certified to Level 4 or higher and a Full Flight Simulator or a combination of a Flight Training Device certified to Level 6 or higher and the aeroplane, if a simulator is available in North America.

(e) For turbo-jet aeroplanes of 50 or more seats initial and recurrent Pilot Proficiency Checks shall be conducted on a Full Flight Simulator or a combination of a Full Flight Simulator and a flight training device certified to Level 4 or higher. Location of the synthetic training device will not be considered in applying this standard.

(f) The synthetic training device level of checking shall be part of the training program approval for each aeroplane type. Checking procedures not approved for the synthetic training device shall be completed in the aeroplane. The configuration of the flight training device shall closely resemble that of the aeroplane used by the air operator.

(g) A proficiency check of a pilot-in-command shall be completed in the seat normally occupied by the pilot-in-command and a check of a second-in-command shall be completed in the seat normally occupied by the second-in-command. The pilot proficiency check shall consist of a demonstration of both pilot flying (PF) duties and pilot not flying (PNF) duties.

(h) The PPC shall not be conducted as an isolated group of emergency procedures and drills. It shall be constructed with minimum disruption in a logical continuous flow reflecting a normal flight profile. Normally the pilot proficiency check is a pre-programmed activity; however, the person conducting the check may require any manoeuvre or procedure from the appropriate Schedule, necessary to determine the proficiency of the crew and to confirm that the crew can operate the aeroplane safely.

(i) Where a pilot successfully completes the pilot proficiency check, the pilot is considered as having successfully completed the flight check requirements for the renewal of the applicable instrument rating.

(j) The PPC may be transferred from one air operator to the other when the conditions of subsection 725.124(28) of the training program, Transportability of Pilot Proficiency Check - Training Required, are met.

(3) Line Checks (refers to paragraph 705.106(1)(d) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

(a) Pilot Line Check

The pilot line check shall consist of at least the following conducted over a typical part of the air operator's route and shall not be less than one sector:

(i) Flight Preparation

(A) weather briefing;

(B) dispatch procedures;

(D) weight and balance, and load control;

(E) aeroplane servicing and ramp safety;

(F) crew briefing; and

(G) pre-flight checks;

(ii) Operation of the Flight

(A) pre-start safety;

(B) starting engines;

(D) radio procedures and ATC clearance;

(E) pre-take-off checks and cabin security;

(F) taxiing and take-off;

(G) departure procedures;

(H) climb procedures;

(I) enroute procedures;

(J) descent procedures;

(K) approach procedures;

(L) shutdown;

(M) flight logs and records; and

(N) defect recording and clearing.

(b) Cruise Relief Pilot Line Check

(i) Flight Preparation

(A) weather briefing;

(B) dispatch procedures;

(D) weight and balance; and

(E) crew briefing.

(ii) Operation of the Flight

(A) enroute climb procedures;

(B) enroute procedures;

(D) flight logs and records; and

(E) defect recording and clearing.

(4) Line Indoctrination Training (refers to paragraph 705.106(1)(d) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

The standard for Line indoctrination training is in subsection 725.124(32) of the Commercial Air Services Standard.

(5) Regaining Competency (refers to subsection 705.106(2) Canadian Aviation Regulations)

The standards for Regaining Competency are in subsections 725.124 (15) and (16) of the Commercial Air Service Standards.

(6) Use of a Person not Qualified in Accordance with the Canadian Aviation Regulations to Act as Pilot-in-Command or Second-in-Command (refers to subparagraph 705.106(3)(b)(ii) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

Authority may be given for other than an air operator employee pilot to occupy a flight crew seat when training, conducting line indoctrination training, and while the first air operator flight crews are completing consolidation and crew pairing minimum flight time requirements on a new aeroplane type.

The pilot shall:

(a) provide a resume, proof of background on the type of aeroplane, and recent experience appropriate to the training to be given; and

(b) hold the appropriate licence, ratings and endorsements. Where the pilot holds a foreign pilot licence, the licence and (as applicable) the instrument rating shall be validated by Transport Canada - Civil Aviation.

The pilot may be authorized to conduct pilot checks provided the requirements of the Approved Check Pilot Manual (TP6533) are met with the exception of the minimum employment time with the air operator.

A foreign licensed pilot may be granted authority for training and checking only when a Canadian licensed pilot is not available.

During revenue flights foreign licensed pilots shall not replace Canadian licensed pilots. They can act as qualified pilot in replacement of a training pilot where the training pilot is authorized to occupy the jump seat for the purpose of crew pairing requirements (section 725.108) or transition line indoctrination (subsection 725.124(33)).

(7) Consolidation Period (refers to subsection 705.106(4) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

(a) The consolidation period shall take place in accordance with the time limits from the following sliding scale and shall begin upon successful completion of an initial Pilot Proficiency Check on each aeroplane type:
(amended 2000/06/01)

(i) 50 hours in 60 days;

(ii) 75 hours in 90 days; or

(iii) 100 hours in 120 days.

(b) If the consolidation period is not completed within 120 days, an extension to 150 days is permitted, at the air operator's discretion, under the following conditions:

(i) on or before the 120th day, the air operator shall make a ground evaluation of the pilot's level of proficiency;

(ii) when the pilot is assessed as not possessing a satisfactory level of competence, the pilot shall undergo additional training, followed by a supervised line operating flight, after which the consolidation period may be extended to 150 days; and

(iii) when the pilot's proficiency is judged satisfactory, the pilot shall be observed in a supervised line operating flight, after which the consolidation period may be extended to 150 days.

(c) If at any time before the consolidation period ends a pilot is assigned to another aeroplane type, the pilot shall undergo refresher training with a training pilot or check pilot before resuming the consolidation process.

(d) If the pilot fails to complete the consolidation requirements in the maximum time of 150 days allowed, the complete line indoctrination and consolidation period requirements must be repeated.

Schedule I - Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) - Synthetic Training Device

Schedule II - Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) - Aeroplane

Schedule III - Pilot Proficiency Check (PPC) - Cruise Relief Pilot (CRP)

725.107 Flight Engineer and Second Officer Qualifications

(1) Flight Engineer/Second Officer Check (refers to paragraph 705.107(1)(b) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

(a) The flight engineer and second officer check shall be conducted in accordance with the applicable subsections and paragraphs of the PPC Schedule I or Schedule II in section 725.106. The check shall be run concurrent with a pilot proficiency check.

(b) A flight engineer/second officer check shall be conducted in a manner that enables the FE/SO to demonstrate the knowledge and the skill respecting:

(i) the air operator's aeroplane, its systems and components;

(ii) proper control of the systems and components in accordance with normal, abnormal and emergency procedures and limitations set out in the aircraft flight manual, the aeroplane operating manual (if applicable), the air operator's standard operating procedures, the check list, and any other information relating to the operation of the aeroplane type;

(iii) adherence to approved procedures;

(iv) workload management and coordination; and

(v) problem solving and decision making abilities.

(c) Each manoeuvre or procedure specified in these standards, shall be performed in a synthetic training device approved for use by the air operator. Manoeuvres or procedures that are not approved for checking in the synthetic training device shall be conducted in the aeroplane. Where there is no synthetic training device for the aeroplane, flight engineer and second officer proficiency checks shall be conducted on the aeroplane.

(2) Flight Engineer/Second Officer Line Indoctrination (refers to paragraph 705.107(1)(c) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

Line indoctrination training for flight engineers and second officers shall be conducted in accordance with subsection 725.124(32).

(3) Training for a Qualified Pilot-in-Command or Second-in-Command Acting as Second Officer (refers to paragraph 705.107(2)(a) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

(a) Definition of "cruise portion of a flight" is found in section 725.29.

(b) The required training shall be done at the flight engineer/second officer station.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(c) the training syllabus shall include duties and procedures as they apply to the flight engineer/second officer for the cruise portion of the flight.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(4) Check for a Qualified Pilot-in-Command or Second-in-Command Acting as Second Officer (refers to paragraph 705.107(2)(b) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

(a) Definition of "cruise portion of a flight" is found in section 725.29.

(b) The check shall be in accordance with parts of the check in subsection 725.107(1) that apply to the cruise portion of the flight; and

725.108 Crew Pairing

(1) Crew pairing restrictions establish minimum experience requirements for a flight crew.

(2) Crew pairing restrictions apply when any of the following situations apply to either the pilot-in-command or the second-in-command when at the employ of an air operator:
(amended 2002/06/01)

(a) initial appointment to pilot-in-command or second-in-command;
(amended 2002/06/01)

(b) the first upgrade from second-in-command to pilot-in-command on any aeroplane type except the same aeroplane type;
(amended 1998/09/01)

(c) the first transition from a reciprocating-powered aeroplane to a turbo-prop or turbo-jet powered aeroplane;
(amended 2002/06/01)

(d) the first transition from a turbo-prop-powered aeroplane to a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane;
(amended 2002/06/01)

(e) the first transition to an aeroplane whose control systems use a technology or present information in a manner that differs significantly in access, interpretation, or usage from that with which the pilot is familiar;
(amended 2002/06/01)

(f) upon completion of training on a second aeroplane type which is not covered by a common type rating, regardless of previous experience, when the pilot will be flying both types of aeroplanes in service; or
(amended 2002/06/01)

(g) the transition to an aeroplane type on which the crew member has no previous experience.
(amended 2002/06/01)

(3) When crew pairing restrictions apply, they come into effect after completion of the Pilot Proficiency Check in the new position or new type, and remain in effect until the completion of the consolidation period for this flight crew member. (See subsection 725.106(7) for consolidation period)

(4) When, after completion of the line indoctrination, crew pairing restrictions apply to one of the flight crew members, the other flight crew member shall meet the following requirements:

(a) has completed the consolidation period; or

(b) for the purpose of a transition period from previous regulation to the new Canadian Aviation Regulations, has gained experience in position on the aeroplane type prior to the introduction of consolidation requirements.

(5) When, after completion of their individual line indoctrination, crew pairing restrictions apply to the pilot-in-command and to the second-in-command, a training pilot who meets the requirements of subsection 725.124(4) shall occupy the jump seat.

(6) Hours applying to crew pairing restrictions are valid for line indoctrination and the consolidation period referred to in Section 725.106.

725.111 Route and Aerodrome Qualifications

Training and qualification requirements are in subsection 725.124(35).

725.113 Validity Period

(1) Six month Recurrency Training that is Approved as a Substitute for the Pilot Proficiency Check (refers to paragraph 705.113(2)(b) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

(amended 2003/06/01)

Pilots, after an initial PPC on type, shall be required to complete at least one recurrent PPC. After this first recurrent PPC, the pilot proficiency requirements may be renewed by the alternate training below, PPC being required once every 12 months:

(a) the air operator submits for approval a training program which provides for training in lieu of the PPC:
(amended 1998/03/23)

(i) for all advanced technology aeroplanes, as listed in (iii) below, and all turbo-jets certificated for 50 or more passengers, this training shall be conducted in a synthetic training device, regardless of synthetic training device location;

(ii) for other Transport Category aeroplanes, this training shall be conducted in a synthetic training device if a synthetic training device for the type is available in North America, or on the aeroplane if a synthetic training device is not available in North America;

(iii) "advanced technology aeroplanes" includes the following types:

(A) Airbus A319, A320, A321, A330 and A340;

(B) Boeing B757/767, B747-400, B737-600/700/800/900; and
(amended 2003/06/01)

(b) the training shall be in addition to the normally required training and be of 1.0 to 1.5 hours duration. Where the synthetic training device capability meets the requirements of a LOFT in accordance with subsection 725.124(20) of the Commercial Air Services Standards, the training shall incorporate a LOFT scenario;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(c) if training is completed in the synthetic training device, the 12 month PPC must also be completed in the synthetic training device; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(d) where, as specified in subparagraph (1)(a)(ii), no synthetic training device is available and the training is conducted on an aeroplane, the training shall incorporate a scenario approved by the Minister as per paragraph (1)(a) which shall consist of one of the following:
(amended 2003/06/01)

(i) a training flight patterned on a PPC profile (as per Schedule II of section 725.106);

(ii) additional approach and holding manoeuvres combined with simulated powerplant failures and system problems; or

(iii) an alternate training program submitted by the air operator and approved by the Minister.

(2) Advanced Qualification Program as a Substitute for the Pilot Proficiency Check (refers to paragraph 705.113(2)(c) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

The advanced qualification program and proficiency evaluation are under development and will be available at a later date.

(3) PPC, Line Check or Training Expired for 24 months or more (refers to paragraph 705.113(6) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

Where the flight crew member's pilot proficiency check, line check or training has expired for a period of 24 months or more, that flight crew member shall successfully complete the air operator's initial training program and a pilot proficiency check on the type of aeroplane.

(4) Flight Dispatcher Competency Check or Training Expired for 12 Months or More (refers to subsection 705.113(7) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations)

Where the flight dispatcher's competency check or training has expired for a period of 12 months or more, that flight dispatcher shall successfully complete the air operator's flight dispatcher requalification training program in paragraph 725.124(21)(k).

(5) Flight Attendant Training
(amended 2000/12/01)

NOTE:

Information regarding the validity period of flight attendant training can be found in the introduction section of the Flight Attendant Training Standard (TP12296E).

Division VIII - Training

725.124 Training Program

The air operator training program syllabus shall include all applicable subsections of this standard.

(1) Training Standard

(a) Training Program Standard to Flight Crew Members

(i) Training Syllabus

The flight crew training program requires a syllabus that shall include sufficient time to ensure coverage of the subject matter to meet the performance objective during each period and the total programmed hours set aside for the training.

(ii) Ground Training Examinations

The ground training program shall provide a means of evaluating the trainee after completion of the syllabus by completion of examination with a review and correction of any errors. Training examinations shall be comprehensive, and periodically reviewed and updated.

(iii) Aeroplane Type Training

(A) A type training program is to be titled as to the type to which it applies. The program shall stress the operation (normal, emergency and malfunctions) of the aircraft systems and equipment. Instruction related to components and systems that flight crews cannot control, influence or operate should be minimized.

(B) With the exception of Regaining Competency Training, pilots shall receive training in both the pilot-flying and the pilot-not-flying duties.

(b) Training Program Standard to All Crew Members

(i) Manuals

Manuals, if applicable, shall be provided during training to each trainee on the subject matter to be taught.

(ii) Training Aids

Relevant training aids such as fire extinguishers, life preservers, rafts, aircraft components, static aircraft, etc. shall be available relevant to the program being presented.

(iii) Examinations

Comprehensive examinations shall be used to validate competence of the trainee.

(iv) Specific Training
(amended 1998/03/23)

When the air operator is allowed to revert from type "A" or "B" operational control system to a type "C" system, specific training for pilots must be provided to explain the differences between the systems.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(2) Crew Training on a Contract Basis

An air operator may contract crew member training to another organization provided:

(a) the arrangement is clearly provided for in the approved training program;

(b) the outside organization uses the manuals and publications used by the air operator (SOP's, Aircraft Flight Manual, Aircraft Operating Manual, if applicable, Company Operations Manual, etc.);

(d) where type training is conducted the training is provided on the type and model operated by the air operator unless otherwise provided for in the approved training program; and

(e) the air operator maintains training records as required by Subpart 705

of the Canadian Aviation Regulations.

(3) Training Facilities

Training facilities shall be adequate to ensure that training objectives can be achieved. Facilities shall be:

(a) quiet and free of distractions;

(b) suitably lighted for the type of instructions to be given, e.g. lectures, slides and audio-visual;

(d) equipped with training aids such as films, Vu-graphs, system components, audio-visual, aeroplane manuals or computer based systems.

(4) Training Personnel

(a) Qualifications of Training Personnel - General

(i) All training personnel shall have been briefed on:

(A) the objectives and standards of the air operator's training program;

(B) the effective use of training devices used in the program;

(D) pertinent Canadian Aviation Regulations and Commercial Air Service Standards;

(ii) All training personnel shall have demonstrated, to the satisfaction of the air operator, a proficient level of practical and theoretical knowledge of:

(A) the subject the instructor is to teach;

(B) the aeroplane type, the instructor is to teach;

(D) preparation and use of lesson plans;

(E) briefing and debriefing techniques relative to the exercises; and

(F) all associated training devices.

(b) Qualifications of Instructor - Ground Training

If conducting aeroplane type training, the instructor - ground training shall have successfully completed the ground school for the type of aeroplane.

(i) Qualifications

(A) hold a valid Airline Transport Pilot Licence, a valid Instrument Rating, and a type rating for the type of aeroplane on which training will be given;

(B) be qualified for line flying on the type of aeroplane; and

(C) know the content of the Aircraft Flight Manual, Aircraft Operating Manual (if applicable), Approved Check Pilot Manual, Company Operations and Training Manuals and the operator’s Standard Operating Procedures for the aeroplane type, and the provisions of the regulations and standards.

(ii) Responsibilities

The Training Pilot is responsible for:

(A) monitoring the operation and identifying problems which may require the provision of extra training or changes in operational procedures;

(B) together with the chief pilot, the establishment and promulgation of the standards and piloting techniques with which flight crew will be expected to comply during flight operations and which the flight crew will be required to demonstrate during initial and recurrent checks;

(C) conducting ground, synthetic flight training device and flight training of all flight crew in accordance with the approved training program;

(D) conducting line indoctrination;

(E) supervision of the standards and recommending amendments to the respective aeroplane operating manuals and standard operating procedures;

(F) maintaining the air operator's training records;

(G) liaison with crew scheduling concerning training details; and

(H) any other duties assigned by the Chief Pilot.

(d) Qualifications and Responsibility of a Training Pilot (Synthetic Training Device)

(i) Qualifications

(A) hold or have held an Airline Transport Pilots Licence or equivalent and an Instrument Rating appropriate for the class of aeroplane;

(B) have completed the air operator's ground school and synthetic training device program for the type of aeroplane;

(C) have successfully completed within the past 12 months a pilot proficiency check in the synthetic training device or aeroplane for that type;

(D) know the content of the Aeroplane Operating Manual (if applicable), Aeroplane Flight Manual, Operations and Training Manuals and as applicable the Approved Check Pilot Manual and the air operator Standard Operating Procedures for the aeroplane type, and the provisions of the regulations and standards; and

(E) have received instruction on the operation of the synthetic training device from an instructor qualified to operate the synthetic training device.

(ii) Responsibilities

The Training Pilot is responsible for:

(A) monitoring the operation and identifying problems which may require the provision of extra training or changes in operational procedures;

(C) conducting ground and synthetic flight training device training of all flight crew in accordance with the approved training program;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(D) supervision of the standards and recommending amendments to their respective aeroplane operating manuals and standard operating procedures;

(E) maintaining the air operator's training records;

(F) liaison with crew scheduling concerning training details; and

(G) any other duties assigned by the Chief Pilot.

NOTE:

Requirements for the use of other than an air operator employee pilot for training and checking are in section 725.106.

(e) Qualifications of a LOFT Facilitator

LOFT facilitators shall:

(i) have completed a Crew Resource Management Course in the last three years;

(ii) have at least two years of line flying with the air operator for which the duties will perform;

(iii) have previous experience in training of air operator crews;

(iv) hold or have held a valid Airline Transport Pilot Licence with the appropriate aeroplane endorsement or at least the equivalent experience that could lead to the issue of this license;

(v) have completed the initial/recurrent training approved in the company operations manual;

(vi) maintain line familiarity of at least six flight sectors within the preceding twelve months on the aeroplane on which the instruction will be given; and

(vii) demonstrate yearly, on a check, a satisfactory level of proficiency and knowledge of air operator operations.

(f) Flight Dispatcher Instructors and Check Flight Dispatchers

(i) Flight Dispatcher Instructors

(A) Flight dispatcher specific training instructors shall be knowledgeable and able to present their subject in an effective manner.

(B) Where the instructors used to teach specific course material are not themselves qualified flight dispatchers, a qualified flight dispatcher shall be available for co-ordinating and answering questions relating to the practical application of the course material.

(ii) Check Flight Dispatchers

Initial and recurrent competency checks for flight dispatchers shall be conducted by a check flight dispatcher nominated by the air operator and acceptable to Transport Canada - Civil Aviation.

(g) Qualifications and Responsibilities of Training Flight Engineer/Second Officer (Flight)
(amended 1998/03/23)

(i) Qualifications

(A) be qualified for line flying on the type of aeroplane;

(B) know the content of the Aircraft Flight Manual, Aircraft Operating Manual (if applicable), Company Operations and Training Manuals and the operator's Standard Operating Procedures for the aeroplane type, and the provisions of the regulations and standards; and

(C) have received instruction on the operation of the synthetic flight training device from an instructor qualified to operate the synthetic training device.

(ii) Responsibilities

The training flight engineer/second officer (flight) is responsible for:

(A) conducting ground, synthetic flight training device and flight training of all flight crew members with duties at the flight engineer station in accordance with the approved training program;

(B) conducting checks in flight or in a synthetic flight training device of all flight crew members with duties at the flight engineer station;

(D) supervising the standards and recommending amendments to the respective aeroplane operating manuals and standard operating procedures;

(E) maintaining the air operator's training records;

(F) liaising with crew scheduling concerning training details; and

(G) performing any other duties assigned by the chief pilot.

(h) Qualifications and Responsibilities of Training Flight Engineer/Second Officer (Synthetic Flight Training Device)
(amended 1998/03/23)

(i) Qualifications

(A) have completed the air operator's ground school and synthetic flight training device program for the type of aeroplane;

(B) have successfully completed within the past 12 months a flight engineer check in a synthetic flight training device for that type;

(C) know the content of the Aircraft Flight Manual, Aircraft Operating Manual (if applicable), Company Operations and Training Manuals and the operator's Standard Operating Procedures for the aeroplane type, and the provisions of the regulations and standards; and

(D) have received instruction on the operation of the synthetic training device from an instructor qualified to operate the synthetic training device.

(ii) Responsibilities

The training flight engineer/second officer (synthetic flight training device) is responsible for:

(A) conducting ground and synthetic flight training device training of all flight crew members with duties at the flight engineer station in accordance with the approved training program;

(B) conducting check in a synthetic flight training device of all flight crew members with duties at the flight engineer station;

(C) supervising the standards and recommending amendments to the respective aeroplane operating manuals and standard operating procedures;

(D) maintaining the air operator's training records;

(E) liaising with crew scheduling concerning training details; and

(F) performing any other duties assigned by the chief pilot.

(5) Company Indoctrination Training

This training is required upon employment for all persons assigned to an operational control function including base managers, pilots and persons responsible for flight watch or flight following. The program shall ensure that persons involved in control of flight operations are aware of their responsibilities, know company reporting relationships and are competent to fulfil their assigned duties related to flight operations. Company indoctrination training shall include as applicable:

(a) Canadian Aviation Regulations and airline standards;

(b) air operator certificate and operating conditions;

(d) flight planning and operating procedures;

(e) fuelling procedures including procedures for fuelling with passengers on board and fuel contamination precautions;

(f) critical surface contamination and safety awareness program;

(g) passenger safety briefings and safe movement of passengers to/from the aeroplane;

(h) use and status of company operations manual including maintenance release procedures and accident/incident reporting procedures;

(i) use of minimum equipment lists (if applicable);

(j) windshear, aeroplane icing, and other meteorological training appropriate to the area of operations;

(k) navigation procedures and other specialized operations applicable to the operator;

(l) accident/incident reporting;

(m) passenger on board medical emergency;

(n) handling of disabled passengers;

(o) air operator's safety management system;
(amended 2005/05/31)

(p) operational control system;

(q) weight and balance system procedures;

(r) standard operating procedures (if applicable);
(amended 1998/03/23)

(s) pre-flight crew-member briefing; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(t) when the air operator is allowed to revert from type "A" or "B" operational control system to a type "C" system, specific training for flight dispatchers must be provided to explain the differences between the systems.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(6) Technical Ground Training - Initial and Annual for Flight Crew Members other than Cruise Relief Pilots
(amended 2004/12/01)

(a) Initial Ground Training
(amended 1998/03/23)

This training shall ensure that each flight crew member is knowledgeable with respect to aeroplane systems and all normal, abnormal and emergency procedures. The following subjects shall be included:

(i) aeroplane systems operation and limitations as contained in the aeroplane flight manual and aeroplane operating manual, and standard operating procedures;

(ii) operation of all equipment that is installed in all aeroplanes of the same type operated by the air operator;

(iii) differences in equipment that is installed in all aeroplanes of the same type in the air operators fleet;

(iv) applicable standard operating procedures for pilot flying and pilot not flying duties for normal, abnormal and emergency procedures for the aeroplane;

(v) aeroplane performance and limitations; and

(vi) weight and balance procedures.

(b) Annual Ground Training
(amended 1998/03/23)

(i) the annual ground training syllabus shall be a review of aeroplane systems and operations; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(ii) a briefing must be provided on changes that have occurred to the aeroplane or its operation since flight crew member's last annual training.
(amended 1998/03/23)

Technical ground training for flight engineer/second officer shall be equivalent to that given to pilots and shall specialize in the subject matter applicable and pertinent to their duties. The following additional items shall be included in the initial technical ground training syllabus for flight engineer/second officer:
(amended 1998/03/23)

(i) external inspection;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(ii) fuelling and de-fuelling procedures;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(iii) management of fuel pressurization and other systems;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(iv) use of dip/drip sticks;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(v) maintenance logs, MEL and aeroplane release procedures;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(vi) towing procedures; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(vii) the installation of protective covers.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(7) Cockpit Procedures Training for Flight Crew Members
(amended 2004/12/01)

This training may be conducted in conjunction with aeroplane systems training, and may be carried out in either the aeroplane or in an approved synthetic training device or other training device. The following subjects shall be included:

(a) normal, abnormal and emergency operation and control of the aeroplane systems;

(b) operation of specialized aeroplane systems in the air operator's fleet;

(d) differences in equipment, and layout between aeroplanes of the same type in the air operator's fleet.

(8) Synthetic Flight Training Device

(a) A Synthetic Flight Training Device is classified as:

(i) full flight simulator (FFS); or

(ii) flight training device(FTD)

(b) All initial and recurrent flight training shall be conducted on a combination of FTD certificated to Level 4 or higher and an FFS or a combination of FTD certificated to Level 6 or higher and the aeroplane.

(c) For turbo-jet aeroplanes of 50 or more seats, with the exception of airborne training authorized under this standard, all initial and recurrent training shall be conducted on an FFS or on a combination of FFS and FTD certified to Level 4 or higher.

(8A) Synthetic Flight Training Device or Aeroplane Training - Initial, Upgrade and Annual for Flight Crew Members other than Cruise Relief Pilots
(amended 2004/12/01)

(a) Initial and upgrade training for pilots shall be done in accordance with one of the following training programs as set out in the applicable subsection of section 725.124:

(i) subsection (9), level A training program;

(ii) subsection (10), level B training program;

(iii) subsection (11), level C training program;

(iv) subsection (12), level D training programs; or

(v) subsection (13), aeroplane only flight training program.

(b) Initial training for flight engineer/second officer shall include the applicable items of training programs in paragraph (a).

(c) Annual training for all flight crew members for synthetic flight training device or aeroplane shall meet the following requirements:

(i) all items for the initial training syllabus must be covered over a definite period of time (through a cycle); and

(ii) a briefing must be provided on changes that have occurred to the aeroplane or its operation since pilot's last annual training.

(d) Training before PPC or flight engineer/second officer check shall be provided in all cases prior to the conduct of a PPC or a flight engineer/second officer check.

(9) Level A Training Program for Pilots other than Cruise Relief Pilots
(amended 2004/12/01)

An air operator with an approved Level A training program using an approved Level A or better FFS is permitted to conduct most initial, upgrade and recurrent training in that simulator. Additionally, flight training in an aeroplane must be carried out for general handling and landing manoeuvres for initial training.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(a) The following training in standard operating procedures for normal, abnormal and emergency operation of the aeroplane systems and components shall be carried out in the FFS:

(i) use of aeroplane checklists;

(ii) flight and cabin crew co-operation, command and co-ordination;

(iii) aeroplane and cargo fire on the ground and while airborne;

(iv) engine fire and failure;

(v) effects of engine icing and anti-ice operation;

(vi) take-off, landing and flight with the critical engine inoperative including driftdown and engine inoperative performance capabilities;

(vii) on 3- and 4-engine aeroplanes inflight procedures including approach and landing with 2 engines inoperative (applies to P-I-C only);

(viii) loss of pressurization and emergency descent (if applicable);

(ix) flight control failures and abnormalities;

(x) hydraulic, electrical and other system failures;

(xi) failure of navigation and communication equipment;

(xii) pilot incapacitation - recognition and response during various phases of flight;

(xiii) approach to the stall and recovery procedure with ground contact imminent and ground contact not a factor (clean, take-off and landing configuration);

(xiv) buffet boundary onset, steep turns (45° of bank), and upset training (initial and every two years thereafter);
(amended 2002/06/01)

(xv) aeroplane performance for climb, cruise, holding, descent and landing;

(xvi) normal, noise abatement and performance limited take-offs;

(xvii) take-off and landing data calculations;

(xviii) rejected take-off procedures and rejected landings;

(xix) passenger and crew evacuation;

(xx) Flight Management Computer System (FMCS), Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS), Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS), Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) and other specialized aeroplane equipment (where available); and
(amended 2004/12/01)

(xxi) inadvertent encounters with moderate or severe in flight icing conditions.
(amended 1998/09/01)

(b) Where the air operator seeks authorization for flight in IMC the following training in flight planning and instrument flight procedures shall be included:

(i) departure, enroute, holding and arrival; and

(ii) all types of instrument approaches and missed approaches in minimum visibility conditions using all levels of automation available (as applicable).

(c) In addition to the training in a Level A synthetic training device, the flight check in PPC Schedule I of section 725.106 is part of this training program.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(d) If a Level A flight simulator has differences in performance, systems, or cockpit layout and configuration from the air operator's aeroplane, additional training on these differences shall be provided.

(10) Level B Training Program for Pilots other than Cruise Relief Pilots
(amended 2004/12/01)

An air operator with an approved Level B training program using an approved Level B or better FFS is permitted to conduct most initial, upgrade and recurrent training in that simulator. Additionally, flight training in an aeroplane must be carried out for general handling and landing manoeuvres for initial training.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(a) In addition to those items of training required in paragraphs 725.124(9)(a) and (b), training in an approved Level B flight simulator shall include recovery from turbulence and windshear on take-off and approach;
(amended 2004/12/01)

(b) In addition to the training in a Level B synthetic flight training device, the flight check in PPC Schedule I of section 725.106 is part of this training program.
(amended 2004/12/01)

(c) If a Level B flight simulator has differences in performance, systems, or cockpit layout and configuration from the air operator's aeroplane additional training on these differences shall be provided.
(amended 2004/12/01)

(11) Level C Training Program for Pilots other than Cruise Relief Pilots
(amended 2004/12/01)

(a) An air operator with an approved Level C training program using an approved Level C FFS is permitted zero flight time training for candidates with at least second-in-command experience on a similar aeroplane with the same air operator or has had verifiable line currency as a second-in-command on a similar aeroplane within the previous two years. Candidates who do not qualify shall undergo aeroplane flight training in accordance with those items listed in paragraph 725.124(9)(c).
(amended 2004/12/01)

(b) For the purpose of this provision, "similar aeroplane" means both aeroplanes are subject to Subpart 705

of the Canadian Aviation Regulations except where the two types have been grouped for PPC purposes as:

(i) turbo-jet to turbo-jet - provided both are certified as Transport Category Aeroplanes;

(ii) turbo-prop to turbo-prop - provided both are certified as Transport Category Aeroplanes; and/or

(iii) reciprocating to reciprocating - provided both are certified for operations under Subpart 705

of the Canadian Aviation Regulations.

(c) In addition to those items of training required in paragraph 725.124(10)(a), and the flight check in PPC Schedule I of section 725.106, training in an approved Level C flight simulator shall include:
(amended 2004/12/01)

(i) manoeuvring of the aeroplane on the ground;

(ii) crosswind take-offs and landings to 100% of the published crosswind component;

(iii) a visual training program in the flight simulator to ensure VFR flight skills, covering scenarios of dusk and night with variable weather and visibilities. This program shall include the following:

(A) normal and crosswind take-offs, visual circuits and landings with variable wind, runway illusion and surface conditions;

(B) engine inoperative approach and landing;

(D) no electronic glideslope approach and landing; and

(E) approaches and landings with flight control failures and abnormalities.

(iv) a simulated line flight comprising at least 2 sectors (one as pilot flying and another as pilot not flying).

(d) If a Level C flight simulator has differences in performance, systems, or cockpit layout and configuration from the air operator's aeroplane, additional training on these differences shall be provided.

(12) Level D Training Program for Pilots other than Cruise Relief Pilots
(amended 2004/12/01)

(a) An air operator with an approved Level D training program using an approved Level D FFS is permitted zero flight time training.

(b) In addition to the training required for a Level C program, the following FFS training shall be carried out at an appropriate point in the training program.

(i) A VFR training program in the Level D flight simulator of at least 4 hours per crew (2 hours as pilot flying and 2 hours of pilot not flying) is required, to ensure visual flight skills to cover either day or dusk and night with variable weather and visibility scenarios. This program shall include the following:

(A) normal and crosswind take-offs, and visual circuits and landings, with variable wind, runway illusion and surface conditions;

(B) engine inoperative approach and landing;

(D) no visual aids approaches and landings; and

(E) approaches and landings with flight control failures and abnormalities;

NOTE:

Where a pilot demonstrates a satisfactory level of performance in visual manoeuvres, the operator may use the time specified in (i) above as additional training to that required by any of the Level C requirements.

(ii) Simulated line flights of at least 2 sessions (2 sectors as pilot flying and 2 sectors as pilot not flying) are required. Pilot flying duties shall be carried out from the appropriate seat.

(c) If a Level D flight simulator has differences in performance, systems, or cockpit layout and configuration from the air operator's aeroplane, additional training on these differences shall be provided.

(13) Aeroplane only Flight Training Program

(a) An aeroplane only flight training program will only be approved:

(i) for a reciprocating powered aeroplane;

(ii) for a turbo-jet aeroplane, if no simulator exists; or

(iii) for a turbo-prop aeroplane, if no simulator exists within North America.

(b) Any simulated failure of aeroplane systems shall only take place under operating conditions which do not jeopardize safety of flight.

(c) The training program shall include Standard Operating Procedures for normal, abnormal and emergency operation of the aeroplane systems and components with the following:

(i) use of aeroplane checklists including interior and exterior pre-flight checks;

(ii) manoeuvring of the aeroplane on the ground;

(iii) aspects of flight and cabin crew co-operation, command and co-ordination;

(iv) normal take-off, visual circuit, approach and landing which, for initial training, shall be conducted by day and by night;
(amended 1998/09/01)

(v) simulated aeroplane and cargo fire on the ground and while airborne;

(vi) simulated engine fire and failure;

(vii) briefings on effects of airframe and engine icing and anti-ice operation;

(viii) take-off, landing and flight with the critical engine simulated inoperative, including driftdown and engine inoperative performance capabilities;

(ix) on 3- and 4-engine aeroplanes inflight procedures including approach and landing with 2 engines simulated inoperative (applies to pilot-in-command only);

(x) simulated loss of pressurization and emergency descent;

(xi) no electronic glide slope approach and landing;

(xii) simulated hydraulic, electrical and other system failures;

(xiii) simulated flight control failures and degraded states of operation, while in-flight, and during take-off and landing; (as applicable)

(xiv) simulated failure of navigation and communication equipment;

(xv) simulated pilot incapacitation - recognition and response;

(xvi) briefing on recovery from turbulence and windshear on take-off and approach;

(xvii) approach to the stall and recovery procedure simulating ground contact imminent and ground contact not a factor (clean, takeoff and landing configuration);

(xviii) buffet onset boundary, steep turns (45° of bank) and other flight characteristics (as applicable for initial and upgrade only);

(xix) aeroplane performance for climb, cruise, holding, descent and landing;

(xx) normal and performance limited take-offs;

(xxi) crosswind take-off and landing, and briefing on contaminated runway take-off and landing;

(xxii) take-off and landing data calculations;

(xxiii) simulated rejected take-off procedures (at or below 60 kts) and rejected landings;

(xxiv) briefing on crew and passenger evacuation procedures; and

(xxv) other specialized aeroplane equipment (where applicable).

(d) Where the air operator is authorized for VFR flight at night or flight in IMC, the training program shall also include flight planning and instrument flight procedures with the following:

(i) departure, enroute, holding and arrival; and

(ii) all types of instrument approaches and missed approaches in simulated minimum visibility conditions, including circling approaches (where applicable) using all levels of automation available (as applicable).

(14) Emergency Procedures Training for Flight Crew Members
(amended 2004/12/01)

This training is required on an annual basis and shall include instruction in the location and operation of all emergency equipment. Training devices approved to simulate flight operating emergency conditions, static aeroplanes, ground demonstrations, classroom lectures, films or other devices may be used for training provided the method used ensures that each flight crew member is adequately trained in the operation or use of all emergency equipment. Where practical training is required, it shall include the following and be completed on initial training and every three years thereafter:

(a) fire in the air and on the ground;

(b) use of fire extinguishers including practical training;

(d) passenger preparation for an emergency landing or ditching, (as applicable) including practical training;

(e) emergency evacuation procedures including practical training;

(f) donning and inflation of life preservers (when equipped) including practical training;

(g) removal from stowage, deployment, inflation and boarding of life rafts/slide rafts (when equipped) including practical training;

(h) pilot incapacitation including practical training;

(i) hijacking, bomb threat and other security procedures;

(j) passenger on board medical emergency; and

(k) special emergency procedures when the aeroplane is used on MEDEVAC operations including patient evacuation in emergency situations.

(15) Regaining Competency Training - Recency not Maintained for Pilots other than Cruise Relief Pilots
(amended 2004/12/01)

(a) For air operators using an approved level A FFS, the following must be completed for pilots who have not maintained, for a period between 90 and 180 days, their recency qualifications in accordance with paragraph 705.106(1)(b) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations:
(amended 2000/12/01)

(i) a briefing on changes that have occurred to the aeroplane or its operation since the pilot's last flight,
(amended 2000/12/01)

(ii) a 90 minute simulator exercise that includes normal take-offs and landings, engine failure on take-off and engine failure on the missed approach, and
(amended 2000/12/01)

(iii) a line check of at least three sectors during which the candidate will complete all take-offs and landings.
(amended 2000/12/01)

(b) For air operators using an approved level B, C or D FFS, or the aeroplane, the following must be completed for all pilots who have not maintained their recency qualifications in accordance with paragraph 705.106(1)(b) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations for a period between 90 and 180 days:
(amended 2000/12/01)

(i) a briefing on changes that have occurred to the aeroplane or its operation since the pilot's last flight;

(ii) three take-offs and landings (which may be carried out as part of a PPC where one has come due); and

(iii) a line check of at least two sectors duration.

(16) Regaining Competency Training - After PPC Expiry for Pilots other than Cruise Relief Pilots
(amended 2004/12/01)

(a) Where the PPC has expired for less than 6 months the following must be completed to regain type qualification:

(i) all the requirements specified in subsection 725.124(15) above; and

(ii) any recurrent training, including a PPC, that may come due during the absence from flying duties;

(b) Where the PPC has expired from between 6 and 24 months the following must be completed to regain type qualification:

(i) all the requirements of paragraph 725.124(16)(a) above; and

(ii) a technical ground training course consisting of an aeroplane system review and FTD training (where applicable);

(c) Where the PPC has expired for a period greater than 24 months a complete initial aeroplane type training course shall be carried out (subsection 705.113(6) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations).

(17) Upgrade Training and Checking

(a) Upgrade training and checking for pilots who are qualified as a second-in-command on that aeroplane type shall include the following:

(i) successfully complete simulator manoeuvres training, and training as a pilot-in-command in all areas of aeroplane handling that are specific to the pilot-in-command seat position;

(ii) command and decision making;

(iii) successfully complete specialized operations qualification training; (e.g. lower take-off limits, etc.)

(iv) successfully complete on that type of aeroplane the initial pilot proficiency check outlined in Schedule I or Schedule II, conducted by a Transport Canada - Civil Aviation inspector or an approved check pilot; and

(v) initial line indoctrination for a pilot in command, followed by a line check.

(b) Upgrade training and checking for pilots whose PPC as second-in-command on that aeroplane type has expired within the previous 24 months shall consist of completion of regaining competency requirements specified in paragraphs 725.124(16)(a) or (b), as applicable, as well as the requirements of paragraph 725.124(17)(a) above.

(c) Pilots who have not held a valid PPC on that aeroplane type as second-in-command for a period greater than 24 months shall be given a complete initial aeroplane type training course as well as the requirements of paragraph 725.124(17)(a) above.

(18) Right Seat Conversion Training

(a) For a left seat-qualified pilot to operate an aeroplane from the right seat, except when providing relief during the cruise portion of flight, the pilot shall
(amended 2000/12/01)

(i) be qualified as captain or pilot-in-command and be current on the aeroplane type for left seat duties,
(amended 2000/12/01)

(ii) receive sufficient technical ground training on right seat duties,

(iii) have, in the initial training received after January 1, 2001, sufficient flight or FFS training to enable a Company Check Pilot, air operator aeroplane type Chief Pilot, or an aeroplane type Training Pilot to certify the competency of the pilot to carry out pilot duties from the right seat, and
(amended 2000/12/01)

(iv) every 12 months, complete two segments in the right seat, one as the pilot-flying and one as the pilot-not-flying;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(b) The initial training specified in subparagraph 725.124(18)(a)(iii) shall include at least the following items:
(amended 2000/12/01; previous version)

(i) a normal take-off,

(ii) an instrument approach and landing, and

(iii) a take-off with an engine failure above V1 for FFS training or a simulated engine failure at a safe altitude for flight training;

(c) If the currency requirements specified in subparagraph 725.124(18)(a)(iv) lapse, then the initial training specified in paragraph 725.124(18)(b) shall be completed in order to regain right seat currency;
(amended 2000/12/01)

(d) A current first officer upgrading to captain on the same aircraft type will be considered to have completed the initial right seat training requirement specified in paragraph 725.124(18)(b).
(amended 2000/12/01)

(19) Cruise Relief Pilot (CRP) Training

(a) Initial and Annual Training
(amended 1998/03/23)

(i) aeroplane technical ground training sufficient to assure that the CRP is knowledgeable with respect to aeroplane systems and all normal, abnormal and emergency procedures (including upset training on initial and every two years thereafter) that would be encountered during the cruise phase of flight;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(ii) flight Simulator training sufficient to assure that the CRP is proficient with respect to all normal, abnormal and emergency procedures (including upset training on initial and every two years thereafter) that would be encountered during the cruise phase of flight, and instrument flight to a Group 1 Instrument Rating Standard;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(iii) operations training sufficient to assure that the CRP is proficient with respect to procedures unique to the airspace that will be flown;

(iv) CRP Pilot Proficiency Check-as per Schedule III; and

(v) line Check (Cruise Relief Pilot) - One sector.

(b) Recurrent Training

(i) aeroplane systems and procedures review;

(ii) flight Simulator training, reviewing cruise flight normal, abnormal and emergency procedures, and instrument flight training if required to renew an IFR;

(iii) CRP Pilot Proficiency Check - Annually and as per Schedule III; and

(iv) line Check (Cruise Relief Pilot) - One sector annually.

(i) Where the CRP PPC has expired for less than 12 months, competency shall be regained by completing the CRP recurrent training program;

(ii) Where the PPC has expired from between 12 and 24 months, competency shall be regained by:

(A) completing the CRP recurrent training program; and

(B) completing a technical ground training course consisting of an aeroplane system review and FTD training (where applicable).

(20) Line Oriented Flight Training (LOFT)

The following attributes are considered to be appropriate for the LOFT training session:

(a) sessions are accomplished on a real-time basis without interruption by the instructor. Strict attention is paid to realism through the duplication of line environmental conditions. Where the route segments for the aeroplane type are inordinately long, the cruise portion of the segment can be broken;

(b) a line qualified or line familiar captain, first officer and second officer (as applicable) is required for recurrent, upgrade or regaining competency training;

(c) LOFT training is conducted without the requirement for a passing grade. If deficiencies are identified, further training is provided;

(d) all training is conducted in Level C or Level D synthetic training devices or a Level A or Level B synthetic training device where it meets the minimum requirement of the LOFT program;

(e) the flight shall be planned as one would a real line trip. All communication must be conducted in a manner normally found on a line flight. The air operator shall use recognizable company route and airports or if not available similar routes; and

(f) a LOFT facilitator guide shall be developed which will contain a detailed script of all sequences and scenarios for each LOFT session, instructions for facilitator role playing, adherence to the script, and conformance to realism in briefings and operational conditions.

(20A) Initial and Recurrent Training for Flight Engineer and Second Officer

The training programs are under development and will be available at a later date.

(21) Flight Dispatcher Training

(a) General

This Standard shall apply to the training of flight dispatchers who will exercise operational control within an approved full co-authority dispatch system.

Flight dispatcher training shall comprise two phases: generic training and specific training.

Flight Dispatcher Generic Training

The generic training consists of the common body of knowledge required by all flight dispatchers. Generic training is not approved by Transport Canada - Civil Aviation. Transport Canada - Civil Aviation shall verify the level of knowledge of flight dispatcher candidates who have completed generic training by administering two examinations: one on the meteorology-related subjects and another on the remaining subjects contained in the Study and Reference Guide -Flight Dispatchers (TP 12513E). These examinations shall be closed-book. The pass mark shall be 70%. A candidate that fails a generic exam must allow 14 days to elapse before rewriting the exam.
(amended 1998/03/23)

A flight dispatcher candidate shall pass both generic examinations prior to commencing an air operator specific training. The flight dispatcher candidate shall commence the air operator's initial specific training within 24 months of passing the first generic examination.
(amended 1998/03/23)

Flight Dispatcher Specific Training

The air operator specific training provides training in those subjects that apply specifically to the individual air operator's flight operations and operational control system. The air operator's specific training shall be approved by Transport Canada - Civil Aviation.

Specific training includes the course itself, on-the-job training and cockpit familiarization. All flight dispatcher specific training shall be provided by the air operator that employs the flight dispatcher candidate. Recurrent training shall be given to each flight dispatcher once every 12 months. A competency check shall be performed at the completion of specific training.
(amended 1998/09/01)

The flight dispatcher candidate shall pass both generic examinations prior to commencing on-the-job training at an air operator.

(b) Approval of Specific Training Courses

A copy of the syllabus for each flight dispatcher specific training course shall be submitted to Transport Canada - Civil Aviation by the air operator for approval, and each approved syllabus shall be included in the appropriate Section of the company operations manual or in a separate approved training manual.

Specific training courses shall consist of instruction in at least those subjects listed in this Standard which are applicable to the air operator and shall provide each flight dispatcher candidate with the level of proficiency specified for each applicable subject.

Each specific training syllabus shall specify the time allotted for class review, examinations, and the review of examinations as well as the total time allotted to the delivery of the course.

All course material shall relate to operational control procedures, aeroplane types, and the route structure of the air operator.

Requests for revising a specific training course syllabus or for making significant changes to facilities or equipment shall be submitted to Transport Canada - Civil Aviation for approval. These revisions shall be submitted in such form that the entire page or pages of the existing syllabus can be removed and replaced.

(d) Examinations for Specific Training

An examination shall be given at the end of flight dispatcher specific training. The form and content of this examination shall be left to the discretion of the air operator; however, the examination's relevance to the subject matter specified in the approved course syllabus and its validity as a test of the flight dispatcher candidate's knowledge shall be periodically monitored by and be acceptable to Transport Canada - Civil Aviation.

Air operators shall develop at least two examinations for each specific training course syllabus: one primary examination and the other for any possible re-write.

Close-book examinations shall have a pass mark of 75%, and any open-book examination or quiz shall be corrected to 100%.

(e) Training Records

A training record shall be kept for each flight dispatcher who exercises operational control on behalf of an air operator. This record shall contain information on all the training completed by the flight dispatcher, including the results of Transport Canada - Civil Aviation's generic examinations, copies of all other examinations taken in the previous three years, records of on-the-job training, and all certifications of competency.

Where an air operator employs a flight dispatch organization under contract, the record of training may be located at the flight dispatch organization, but the air operator remains responsible for both the training given and the completeness and accuracy of the record.

(f) Flight Dispatcher Instructors and Check Flight Dispatchers

Refer to 725.124(4), Training Personnel.

(g) On-the-Job Training

(i) On-the-job training shall consist of a specified period of time during which the flight dispatcher candidate will perform the duties of a flight dispatcher under the direct supervision of a fully qualified flight dispatcher who is employed by the air operator. Each air operator shall specify the minimum duration of on-the-job training in its company operations manual or other approved training document, and the conditions of this training shall be arranged so that effective operational control is maintained.
(amended 2000/12/01)

(ii) New air operators who are unable to provide on-the-job training will be given interim approval of their operational control system for up to six months pending inspection and monitoring by Transport Canada.
(amended 2000/12/01)

(h) Cockpit Familiarization Training

In order to provide flight dispatchers and flight dispatcher candidates with practical experience of flight operations and the system of operational control, the air operator shall provide cockpit familiarization training involving an aircraft, route and destination for which the dispatcher is responsible as part of both initial and recurrent training. During this familiarization training, the flight dispatcher shall occupy a jump seat during a revenue flight in an aeroplane type operated by the air operator. The duration of this familiarization training shall be specified in the air operator's flight dispatcher specific training program, which must be submitted to Transport Canada - Civil Aviation for approval. The area of responsibility of the flight dispatcher can be covered over an extended period of time. This requirement does not apply to aeroplanes that are not equipped with a jump seat.
(amended 2006/06/30)

(i) Competency Checks

After completion of on-the-job training, each flight dispatcher shall undergo a competency check administered by a check flight dispatcher. The validity period of a flight dispatcher competency check expires on the first day of the thirteenth month following the month in which the check was completed. The air operator must ensure that all recurrent training or the approved recurrent training syllabus items are listed in the air operator's operations manual. The air operator must also ensure that the cockpit familiarization training are completed during each calendar year.
(amended 2024/10/10)

The competency check shall take place during an operating shift. A shift of eight hours is considered a normal operating shift. An air operator having scheduled shifts longer than eight hours is permitted to complete the competency check during an eight-hour period, provided the competency check includes either the start or termination shift briefing. The competency check shall consist of an evaluation by direct observation of the flight dispatcher's competency, as applicable, in the following elements:
(amended 2006/06/30)

(i) Basic job skills and knowledge;

(ii) Canadian Aviation Regulations;

(iii) Air operator operational control policies and procedures;

(iv) The air operator's manuals;

(v) Aeroplane performance analysis;

(vi) Flight planning procedures;

(vii) Transport Canada - Civil Aviation and the air operator emergency and abnormal procedures through actual observation or simulated through questioning;

(viii) Knowledge of the latest recurrent training and interim operating directives;

(ix) The air operator's administrative procedures relating to flight operations;

(x) Knowledge relating to the interface between operations co-ordination and operational control functions;

(xi) Ability to prioritise and organize workload;

(xii) Communications skills and procedures;

(xiii) Accuracy and thoroughness of work, in particular that related to flight planning and the interpretation of Transport Canada - Civil Aviation and the air operator's fuel policies;

(xiv) Assessment of alternates and their suitability;

(xv) Ability to anticipate changes;

(xvi) Liaison ability with flight crew members and other air operator departments;

(xvii) Ability to analyze weather, perform weather watch, and understand the effects of weather changes;

(xviii) Ability to brief flight crew members and other flight dispatchers on operational matters;

(xix) Ability to use and understand NOTAMs;

(xx) Ability to contact aeroplanes during the flight watch stage and quickly and accurately forward information to flight crew members;

(xxi) Ability to plan for abnormal operations, such as gear down, surface contamination, and anti-skid inoperative, etc.; and

(xxii) Knowledge of ATC procedures, such as flow control, delay programs, and re-routings, etc.

The duration and results of the competency check, together with certification of the flight dispatcher's competency to perform operational control duties shall be recorded on a competency check form, which once completed, shall be included on the flight dispatcher's training record.

Should a flight dispatcher fail a competency check at any time, the air operator shall notify Transport Canada - Civil Aviation, and the individual shall not be allowed to exercise operational control.

(j) Recurrent Training

An air operator's annual recurrent training program shall be approved by Transport Canada and cover those subjects specified in this Standard. The approved program shall, over a three year period, cover all the subjects listed in the standard. Subjects requiring more frequent training than once in a three year period shall be conducted in accordance with applicable requirements. (ie. Aeroplane de-icing procedures.) Dispatchers must satisfactorily complete annual recurrent training as part of the certification validation. In order to maintain the validity of a Flight Dispatchers Certificate, the dispatcher shall complete annual recurrent training and undergo an annual competency check. Annual cockpit familiarization training shall be considered part of the recurrent training program.
(amended 2000/06/01)

(k) Requalification Training

Where a previously qualified flight dispatcher has not actively dispatched with an air operator for a period in excess of 90 days, that flight dispatcher shall pass a competency check prior to returning to work as a flight dispatcher at the same air operator.

Where a previously qualified flight dispatcher has not actively dispatched with an air operator for a period in excess of 12 months, that flight dispatcher shall undergo a course of refresher training that will include recurrent training, any generic training considered appropriate by the air operator, and cockpit familiarization training. Requalification training shall be followed by a successful competency check.

(l) New Dispatch Sector Training

When a flight dispatcher is introduced to a dispatch sector that requires different procedures, that person shall undergo training to acquire the knowledge required for the new area of responsibility. This training shall include at least the following:

(i) a period of familiarization training on the facilities and aeroplane types being dispatched;

(ii) monitoring during an operating shift by a qualified flight dispatcher on that sector for each new area of flight dispatch responsibility; and

(iii) a certification of competency on the flight dispatcher's training record by the person who conducted the monitor.

(m) Aeroplane Type Transition Training

When applying to add a new aeroplane type to its air operator certificate, an air operator with an approved co-authority operational control system shall submit a syllabus for flight dispatcher aeroplane type transition training to Transport Canada - Civil Aviation for approval.

(n) Contracted Flight Dispatch and Flight Watch Services

When an air operator holding a Canadian air operator certificate contracts flight dispatch or flight watch services from an outside organization, the flight dispatchers of the contracted organization shall be trained and certified according to the requirements of this Standard and shall be subject to the same competency checks as if they were direct employees of the contractor. These flight dispatchers shall be familiar with the operating rules (including foreign, where applicable), company operations manual, aeroplane types being dispatched, and standard operating procedures of the contracting air operator.

The competency of each contracted flight dispatcher to exercise operational control on behalf of the contractor shall be certified by an authorized person from the contractor, and the performance of all certified flight dispatchers shall be subject to monitoring and inspection by Transport Canada - Civil Aviation.

(o) Credit for Related Experience

Credit for experience as a civil or military pilot, navigator, air traffic controller, meteorologist, or weather briefer will be given on a case-by-case basis. No credit will be given for generic examinations.

A fully qualified flight dispatcher who changes air operator shall be required to take the approved specific training course of the hiring air operator. Where the scope of the flight operations of the previous air operator is similar to that of the hiring air operator, a flight dispatcher may be given differences training in lieu of initial specific training. The subjects to be covered in this training shall be approved by Transport Canada - Civil Aviation, and the flight dispatcher must pass the air operator's specific training examination. The flight dispatcher shall also undergo a period of on-the-job training, as deemed appropriate by the air operator, under the direct supervision of a fully qualified flight dispatcher. The on-the-job training shall be followed by a successful competency check.

(p) Radio Licence

A flight dispatcher must hold a valid Radio Telephone Operator's Restricted Certificate in order to be certified.

(q) Minimum Age

No person shall be issued a Flight Dispatcher Certificate who is less than 21 years old.

(r) Flight Dispatcher Certification

A flight dispatcher who passes the generic training examinations, completes the specific training required by this Standard, and passes a competency check shall be issued a Canadian Aviation Document called a Flight Dispatcher Certificate in such form as shall be set out and supplied by Transport Canada - Civil Aviation.

A Flight Dispatcher Certificate shall be issued or remain valid only when:

(i) the flight dispatcher has passed, in the case of initial issue, the Transport Canada - Civil Aviation generic examinations; completed the air operator's approved initial or recurrent specific training program and passed all associated examinations; and passed a competency check within the previous 12 months, and

(ii) the flight dispatcher continues to be employed by the air operator named on the Flight Dispatcher Certificate.

The Flight Dispatcher Certificate shall be signed and issued by an authorized person appointed by the Minister after it has been verified that the candidate has met all the requirements for issuance of this document.

(s) Flight Dispatcher Specific Training - Required Content

The subjects listed below, as applicable, shall be covered to the proficiency level indicated. The proficiency values are defined as follows:

"1" denotes a basic knowledge of the subject;

"2" denotes an understanding of the principle;

"3" denotes knowledge of the subject and the ability to apply it practically;

"4" denotes a thorough knowledge of the subject and the ability to apply it with speed and accuracy; and

"5" denotes extensive knowledge of the subject and the ability to apply procedures derived from it with judgement in the light of circumstances.

Standard Formation for Flight Dispatcher Specific Training - Required Content

		PROFICIENCY LEVEL FOR:
	Subject	Initial	Recurrent
1.0	Air Law
1.1	Canadian Aviation Regulations	4
1.2	Commercial Air Service Standards for Airline Operations	4
1.3	FAR's	3
1.4	Foreign Regulations (if applicable)	4	4
2.0	Provisions of Air Operator Certificate
2.1	Operations Specifications	4	4
3.0	Publications
3.1	Canadian AIP	5	5
3.2	Canada Flight Supplement		5
3.3	Flight Information Publications	5	5
3.4	MANOPS	5	5
3.5	Foreign AIP's	3	3
3.6	MMEL/MEL	5
3.7	Designated Airspace Handbook		3
3.8	Foreign Operations Specifications	5	5
3.9	Air Almanac (Sunrise, Sunset)	3
4.0	Company Operations Manual
4.1	C.O.M. Content and Role	3	3
5.0	Theory of Meteorology
5.1	Low Level Wind Shear/Microbursts		5
5.2	Thunderstorms	5
5.3	Tropical Weather	5
5.4	Desert Weather	5
5.5	Volcanic Activity	5	5
6.0	Meteorological Information
6.1	Satellite Imagery	4
6.2	Radar Meteorology	4
6.3	Drawing a Weather Map		4
6.4	Weather Nomenclature and Terms	5
7.0	Applied Meteorology Dispatch Applications
7.1	Briefing Flight Crews	4
7.2	Destination and Alternate Weather Minima	4	4
8.0	Facilities
8.1	Air Operator's Facilities	4	4
8.2	Security	3	3
8.3	Aerodrome Services	3
8.4	Ground Visual Aids		3
9.0	Communications
9.1	Language Terminology		5
9.2	Communications Networks	5
9.3	Emergency Frequency Procedures		5
10.0	Aeroplanes
10.1	Hydraulics	3
10.2	Electrics	3
10.3	A/C and Pressurization	3
10.4	Emergency Equipment	3
10.5	De-Icing/Anti-icing Systems	3
10.6	Fire Detection Systems	3
10.7	Fuel Systems	3
10.8	Weight and Balance Control Procedures	4
10.9	Avionics	3
10.10	Aeroplane Performance (including wet, dry, and contaminated runways)	5	5
10.11	Aeroplane Performance Enroute	5	5
10.12	Aeroplane Type Transition Training (per type)		4
11.0	Air Navigation
11.1	Navigation - Short-Range Flights		4
11.2	Navigation - Long-Range Flights		4
11.3	Precision Instrument Approach Procedures	3
11.4	Non-Precision Instrument Procedures	3
12.0	ATC Procedures
12.1	ATC Responsibilities		5
12.2	Separation Procedures		4
12.3	Special Procedures	4
12.4	Take-off Procedures	4	4
12.5	Departure/SID		4
12.6	Arrivals/STAR/Profile Descent	4
12.7	Landing Procedures	4	4
12.8	Flow Management	4
12.9	Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS)	3
13.0	Dispatch Procedures
13.1	Airworthiness and Maintenance	4
13.2	MEL Procedures	5	5
13.3	Weather Analysis	4	4
13.4	NOTAM Procedures	4
13.5	Operational Flight Plan	5	5
13.6	Release Procedures	5
13.7	Re-Release Procedures	5	5
13.8	ETOPS	5	5
13.9	Briefing Elements	5	5
13.10	Flight Watch Procedures	5	5
13.11	Diversion Operations	5	5
13.12	Shift Turnover	5	5
13.13	Deployed Operations (off-line)	5	5
13.14	Computer Systems	5
13.15	Abnormal Operations (gear down, ferry, etc.)	5	5
13.16	Aeroplane Surface Contamination	5	5
13.17	Dangerous Goods	4	4
13.18	Economic Advantages/Disadvantages	5
13.19	Dispatcher Authority and Responsibility	5
13.20	Use of Hand-Held Computer (e.g., CR or E6B)	4	4
13.21	Human Factors (CRM, DRM)	4
14.0	Emergency Procedures
14.1	Pilot Functions	3
14.2	Flight Dispatch Functions	5	5
14.3	Air Operator's Emergency Plan	5	5
14.4	Communications	5	5
14.5	ATC Procedures	5	5
14.6	ERS Procedures	5	5
14.7	Search and Rescue	4
14.8	Security Measures on the Ground	5	5
14.9	Security Measures in Flight	5	5

(t) Extended Twin-Engine Operations (ETOPS) for Flight Dispatchers
(amended 2007/06/30)

Flight dispatcher practices and procedures for ETOPS operations shall be standardized in the air operator's training program/syllabus, with the exception of the concept and implications of ETOPS operation in a benign area of operation which shall only be defined in the air operator's operations manual.

Only ETOPS qualified flight dispatchers shall be designated as training and/or check flight dispatchers for ETOPS operations.

Initial and recurrent annual ETOPS training shall be completed by each flight dispatcher that is required to prepare an operational flight plan and/or conduct flight watch for a flight intended to be operated in an actual or simulated ETOPS environment.

(i) Initial training for flight dispatchers

The air operator's flight dispatcher training program with respect to ETOPS operations shall include the initial ETOPS training to be provided for each flight dispatcher in the following areas:

Initial Ground training

(A) introduction to regulations, standards and associated operational approvals that are applicable to the air operator's ETOPS operation;

(B) familiarization with the AFM Type Design approval for ETOPS;

(D) familiarization with the location of adequate airports and the requirements permitting them to be designated as ETOPS alternate airports;

(E) review of the air operator's ETOPS procedures such as:

(I) dispatch procedures including the applicability of MEL items sensitive to ETOPS operations prior to the aeroplane being dispatched;

(II) navigational procedures required in the applicable ETOPS areas of operation;

(III) communication procedures required in the applicable ETOPS areas of operation;

(IV) procedures to evaluate the aeroplane's system capability prior to entering an ETOPS area of operation;

(V) diversion procedures and associated operational restrictions, if applicable and required, in the event of an ETOPS significant system failure in any phase of flight;

(VI) procedures to be followed during any phase of flight in the event that there is a change in conditions at designated ETOPS alternate airports that would preclude a safe approach and landing;

(VII) fuel requirements and procedures to be followed during the flight watch portion of the flight, including a system to provide the dispatcher with a fuel report from the flight crew prior to entering the ETOPS segment of flight;

(F) performance such as:

(I) one engine inoperative performance data within the range of altitudes and weight configuration at which a diversion could occur;

(II) flight planning and plotting including all contingencies;

(III) flight performance progress monitoring; and

(IV) the effects of solar flare activity, cosmic radiation and HF propagation; and

(G) fuel and oil requirements including:

(I) Minimum requirements;

(II) Contingency fuel reserve; and

(III) Critical fuel scenario.

If an element of the initial ETOPS ground training listed above is already covered in another part of the air operator's training program, then the air operator may be credited for that training element provided there is a cross reference statement in the air operator's training program and that the element is trained for in the context of ETOPS operations.

Examination

Once the initial ground training has been completed, a comprehensive examination as per the requirements of subparagraph 725.124(1)(b)(iii) shall be administered to each flight dispatcher on the subjects specific to ETOPS; and

Initial Competency Checks

Upon successful completion of a comprehensive examination required in subparagraph 725.124(21)(t)(i) Examination, each flight dispatcher shall successfully complete a comprehensive competency check as required by paragraph 725.124(21)(i) for a flight that is operating in an actual ETOPS environment.

Air operators unable to provide an actual ETOPS flight may use simulated flights for temporary approval of their operational control system with regards to ETOPS operation. Within six months after the beginning of actual ETOPS operation, an inspection and monitoring will be required in order to grant unrestricted approval.

(ii) Recurrent training for flight dispatchers

The air operator's flight dispatcher training program with respect to ETOPS shall include the recurrent ETOPS training to be provided for each flight dispatcher in the following areas every 12 months:

Recurrent ground training

(A) Review of new regulations, standards and operational approvals, if applicable, that are applicable to the air operator's ETOPS operation (if applicable);

(B) Review of new AFM Type Design approval for ETOPS (if applicable);

(D) Summary review of the air operator's procedures listed in subclauses 725.124(21)(t)(i)(E)(I) to (VII);

(E) Review of the performance and fuel management requirements and procedures; and

(F) Review, if applicable, of any ETOPS operational occurrences that have been reported in the air operator's reporting system or any other system, where there would be a benefit for each flight dispatcher to learn from these occurrences.

Recurrent Competency Checks

(A) Subject to clause 725.124(21)(t)(ii)(B) with regards to recurrent competency checks, each flight dispatcher shall complete an ETOPS recurrent competency check every 12 months for a flight operating in an actual ETOPS environment; and

(B) A flight dispatcher not having prepared an operational flight plan and conducted flight watch of a flight intended to be operated in an ETOPS environment, for a period of 24 months, shall complete the initial ETOPS training requirements for flight dispatchers.

(22) Flight Follower Training

Persons assigned the duties of the flight follower, permitted when utilizing a Type C operational control system, shall receive initial training in at least the following:
(amended 1998/03/23)

(a) company indoctrination;

(b) applicable regulations and standards;

(d) providing meteorological information without analysis or interpretation;

(e) procedures in the event of an emergency; and

(f) incident/accident reporting.

(23) Aeroplane Surface Contamination Training

An approved surface contamination initial and annual training program is required for all operations personnel to ensure they are aware of hazards and procedures for ice, frost and snow critical contamination on aircraft. The training program shall include:
(amended 1998/03/23)

(a) responsibility of pilot-in-command and other operations personnel;

(b) regulations related to operations in icing conditions;

(d) inspection before flight and removal of contamination;

(e) in-flight icing recognition; and

(f) hazards related to critical surface contamination of ice, frost and snow.

(24) Minimum Equipment List (MEL) Training

When a Minimum Equipment List (MEL) has been approved for use on an aeroplane type, the air operator shall provide the following initial and recurrent training to flight crew members, flight attendants, maintenance personnel and flight dispatchers, as applicable:
(amended 2004/12/01)

(a) initial training for maintenance personnel shall include instruction on those sections of the Maintenance Control Manual which address the MEL, placarding of inoperative equipment, maintenance release of an aeroplane, dispatching, and any other MEL related procedures;
(amended 2004/12/01)

(b) initial training for flight crew members, flight attendants and flight dispatchers shall include instruction on the purpose and use of an MEL, air operator MEL procedures, elementary work as applicable, and responsibility of the pilot-in-command;
(amended 2004/12/01)

(c) recurrent training shall be conducted when required to ensure air operator personnel are aware of any changes to the MEL or MEL procedures.

(25) Transportation of Dangerous Goods

Crew members' training on transportation of dangerous goods shall be in accordance with the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulations.

(26) Lower than Standard Take-Off Weather Minima

Reported Visibility - RVR 1200 Feet (1/4 Mile), RVR 600 Feet

Training is required for the pilot-in-command only. If the air operator authorizes, in the operations manual, the second-in-command to conduct take-offs in lower than standard weather minima, the second-in-command shall undergo the same training as the pilot-in-command.

(a) Ground Training

(i) take-off alternate requirements;

(ii) pilot-in-command minimum experience;

(iii) pilot-in-command responsibility for visibility and obstacle clearance requirements;

(iv) minimum aeroplane and runway equipment requirements; and

(v) procedures to ensure compliance with performance limitations.

(b) Synthetic Training Device Training

(i) required for air operators using RVR 600 feet; and

(ii) required for air operators using RVR 1200 feet without certified take-off performance.

(c) Initial and Recurrent Training to be conducted every six months or as specified in an approved advanced qualification program
(amended 2006/06/30)

(i) a minimum of one completed take-off at RVR 600 or 1200 feet (as applicable) with a failure of the critical engine at V1; and

(ii) one rejected take-off at RVR 600 or 1200 feet (as applicable) immediately prior to V1.

(27) Area Navigation Systems (RNAV)
(amended 1998/09/01)

(a) General Training

(i) To qualify for use of RNAV systems on IFR operations, an air operator shall have an approved flight crew member training and qualifications program for use of the system. Flight crew shall have completed the appropriate training and have completed an in-flight check or an equivalent check in an approved synthetic training device. This qualification check shall be conducted by an approved check pilot.
(amended 2004/12/01)

(ii) Training shall be in the following areas:

(A) pre-flight;

(B) normal operation of the system;

(D) methods of monitoring and cross checking system;

(E) operation in area of compass unreliability;

(F) malfunction procedures;

(G) terminal procedures;

(H) waypoint symbology, plotting procedures, record keeping duties/practices;

(I) time keeping procedures; and
(amended 2003/03/01)

(J) post-flight.
(amended 2003/03/01)

(iii) To qualify for approval to conduct GPS approaches in IFR, an air operator shall have a flight crew training program approved by the Minister. Flight crew shall have completed the appropriate training and have completed an in-flight check, or an equivalent check in a synthetic training device approved by the Minister prior to conducting GPS approaches. This qualification check shall be conducted by an approved check pilot.

(iv) Where pilots are required to use more than one type of GPS for approach, the training program shall address the differences between the units, unless the units have been determined by the Minister to be sufficiently similar.

(v) Ground training shall include "hands on" training using a desk top simulator, a computer based simulation of the unit to be used, a static in-aircraft unit, or other ground training devices acceptable to the Minister.

(b) Ground Training - Non-Integrated Receivers (Panel Mount GPS Receivers)

An air operator shall ensure that the training program candidates are trained to proficiency in each of the elements associated with the following areas:

(i) Knowledge with the respect to the following:

(A) the GPS system, including:

(I) GPS system components and aircraft equipment;

(II) the composition of satellite constellation;

(III) the minimum number of satellites required for 2-D and 3-D navigation;

(IV) the basic concept of satellite ranging;

(V) factors affecting the accuracy of GPS signals;

(VI) the World Geodedic Survey 84 (WGS 84) datum and the effect of using any other datum;

(B) human factors applicable to the use of GPS and how errors may be reduced or eliminated;

(D) procedures for reporting GPS problems and database errors.

(ii) Ability to perform the following operational tasks:

(A) select appropriate operational modes;

(B) recall categories of information contained in the database;

(D) enter and verify user defined waypoints;

(E) recall and verify database waypoints;

(F) interpret typical GPS navigational displays including latitude/longitude, distance and bearing to waypoint, course deviation indication (CDI), desired track (DTK), track made good (TMG), actual track (TK), cross track error and any other information appropriate for the equipment used;

(G) intercept and maintain GPS defined tracks;

(H) determine navigation information appropriate for the conduct of the flight including ground speed (GS), estimated time of arrival (ETA) for next waypoint and destination;

(I) recognition of waypoint passage;

(J) use of 'direct to' function;

(K) link enroute portion of GPS flight plan to approach;

(L) conduct SIDs, STARs, terminal area procedures and holds;

(M) retrieve, verify and conduct GPS stand alone approaches; and

(N) conduct GPS missed approaches.

(iii) Ability to conduct the following operational and serviceability checks:

(A) database currency and area of operation;

(B) receiver serviceability;

(D) CDI sensitivity;

(E) position indication; and

(F) number of satellites acquired and, if available, satellite position information.

(iv) Ability to recognize and take appropriate action for all GPS warnings and messages including, where applicable:

(A) "loss of RAIM"

(B) "2D navigation"

(D) "database out of date"

(E) "GPS fail"

(F) "barometric input fail"

(G) "power/battery low" or "fail"

(H) "parallel offset on"; and

(I) "satellite fail".

An air operator shall ensure that the training program candidates are trained to proficiency in each of the elements associated with the following areas:

(i) Knowledge with the respect to the following:

(A) the GPS system and theory of operation, including:

(I) GPS system components and aircraft equipment;

(II) the composition of satellite constellation;

(III) the minimum number of satellites required for 2-D and 3-D navigation;

(IV) the basic concept of satellite ranging;

(V) factors affecting the accuracy of GPS signals;

(VI) the WGS84 datum and the effect of using any other datum; and

(B) human factors applicable to the use of GPS and how errors may be reduced or eliminated (i.e. maintaining situational awareness); and

(ii) Ability to perform the following operational tasks:

(A) predict RAIM availability;

(B) link enroute portion of GPS flight plan to approach;

(D) conduct GPS missed approaches.

(iii) Ability to conduct the following operational and serviceability checks:

(A) RAIM status;

(B) CDI sensitivity; and

(iv) Ability to recognize and take appropriate action for all GPS warnings and messages including, where applicable:

(A) "loss of RAIM";

(B) "2D navigation";

(D) "barometric input fail"; and

(E) "satellite fail".

(d) Flight Training

(i) Pilots shall complete flight training in the use of GPS for approach and other associated duties for each crew position they are authorized to occupy. Flight training may be completed in an aircraft, or in a level A or higher simulator that is equipped with the same model of GPS receiver (or a model determined by the Minister to be sufficiently similar) that is installed in company aircraft.

(ii) Flight training shall be conducted by a designated training pilot who has completed the company ground training program approved by the Minister, and demonstrated proficiency in the use of the model of GPS (or a model determined by the Minister to be sufficiently similar) to an approved check pilot.
(amended 2006/06/30)

(28) Transportability of a Pilot Proficiency Check - Training Required

Transportability of Pilot Proficiency Checks from one air operator to another is permitted subject to the hiring air operator providing the following training which shall be specified in the approved operations/training manual:

(a) company indoctrination;

(b) pilot ground and emergency procedures training on each type of aeroplane the pilot is assigned, sufficient to cover the air operator procedures and equipment differences;

(d) sufficient line indoctrination to allow the pilot to become familiar with the air operator routes and operational procedures. In no case shall this be less than two sectors over typical route segments that the air operator flies;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(e) completion of a line check; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(f) the hiring air operator records the PPC validity and expiration date in company records.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(28A) Hire of Type Qualified Pilots
(amended 1998/03/23)

(a) In this standard, "equivalent qualification" means a qualification achieved under an approved Transport Canada course.

(b) An air operator may hire a pilot holding a Canadian type qualification or foreign equivalent qualification , with no PPC on type in accordance with Part VII of the Canadian Aviation Regulations, and shall ensure that, as part of the initial training:

(i) the candidate last check on the aeroplane type was conducted on a synthetic flight training device;

(ii) the following is part of the training:

(A) company indoctrination;

(B) pilot ground and emergency procedures training on each type of aeroplane the pilot is assigned to, sufficient to cover the air operator procedures and equipment differences;

(D) training in synthetic flight training device or flight training sufficient to pass a PPC; and

(E) sufficient line indoctrination to allow the pilot to become familiar with the air operator routes and operational procedures. In no case shall this be less than two sectors over typical route segments that the air operator flies; and

(iii) the candidate pass the following checks:

(A) completion of a PPC; and

(B) completion of a line check.

(29) High Altitude Training

High Altitude training is required for all flight crew members operating aeroplanes above 13,000 feet ASL before first assignment on a pressurized aeroplane and every three years thereafter.

(a) physiological phenomena in a low pressure environment, including:

(i) respiration;

(ii) hypoxia;

(iii) duration of consciousness at altitude without supplemental oxygen;

(iv) gas expansion and gas bubble formation.

(b) other factors associated with rapid loss of pressurization including:

(i) most likely causes;

(ii) noise;

(iii) cabin temperature change;

(iv) cabin fogging;

(v) effects on objects located near the point of fuselage failure;

(vi) actions of crew members immediately following the event and the likely resultant attitude.

(30) Survival Training
(amended 1998/03/23)

Training for all crew members shall include the following:

(a) Initial Training (New Hire with Company)
(amended 1998/03/23)

(i) List the types of survival situations crew members could encounter as a result of an evacuation, including wilderness, arctic, sea, desert or jungle survival, as appropriate to the air operator's operation,

(ii) Describe the search-and-rescue systems, their scope of operation, and how they are able to locate downed aircraft,

(iii) Identify post-crash procedures to increase survivability and explain their importance in each of the survival situations using basic survival concepts, including the following:

(A) survival first aid,

(B) survival priorities,

(D) survival skills for different environments based on aircraft and equipment and supplies carried,

(E) the contents of any survival equipment kit carried, and

(F) signalling and recovery techniques,

(iv) Identify onboard equipment and supplies that crew members could remove from the aircraft after an evacuation in order to enhance survivability.

(b) Annual Training
(amended 1998/03/23)

Annual training shall include the requirements set out in subparagraphs (1)(a)(iii) and(1)(a)(iv) of the Initial Training section above.

(31) Aeroplane Servicing and Ground Handling Training for Pilots

Initial and annual training for pilots shall include the following where applicable:
(amended 2006/06/30)

(a) fuelling procedures:

(i) types of fuel, oil and fluids used in the aeroplane;

(ii) correct fuelling procedures;

(iii) procedures for checking fuel, oil and fluids and proper securing of caps;

(b) use of tow bars and maximum nose wheel deflection when towing;

(d) installation of protective covers on the aeroplane;

(e) procedures for operating in cold weather such as:

(i) moving the aeroplane out of a warm hangar when precipitation is present;

(ii) procedures for applying de-icing and anti-icing fluids for the aeroplane type including critical flight controls post application inspections;

(iii) engine and cabin pre-heating procedures, including proper use of related equipment.

(32) Line Indoctrination Training for Flight Crew Members other than Cruise Relief Pilots
(amended 2004/12/01)

Line indoctrination shall be conducted over parts of the air operator's route structure which are typical of those over which the flight crew will be expected to fly.

The following areas, as applicable, shall be covered during line indoctrination training and noted in records as having been completed:

(a) Command of the Aeroplane

(i) crew management and discipline;

(ii) responsibilities of the pilot-in-command and other flight crew members; and

(iii) responsibilities of the cabin crew.

(b) Aeroplane and Equipment

(i) MEL policy and procedures;

(ii) Certificate of Airworthiness and other aeroplane documentation;

(iii) deferred defects;

(iv) maintenance release;

(v) manuals and log books;

(vi) Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice Recorder;

(vii) emergency exits - number, access, lighting & marking;

(viii) fire extinguishers;

(ix) fire axe; and

(x) oxygen and first aid equipment, and survival equipment.

(i) personnel, hours of operation, operational control; and

(ii) company fuel policy.

(d) Aeroplane Servicing and Ramp Safety

(i) fuelling procedures;

(ii) load security;

(iii) ground equipment & handling;

(iv) air operator's aeroplane de-icing policy and procedures; and

(v) aeroplane parking.

(e) Reporting for Duty

(f) License Requirements

(g) Aeroplane Library

(h) Duty Day Limitations and Rest Facilities

(i) Pre-flight Safety and Crew Briefings

(j) Ramp Push Back and Starting Engines

(k) After Start Checks

(l) Pre-flight Checks and securing cabin

(m) Rejected Take-off and Brake Cooling Chart

(n) Departure Sequence

(i) lookout; and

(ii) after take-off checks.

(o) Climb Procedures

(p) Cruise

(i) fuel management and checks; and

(ii) enroute diversion.

(q) Approach Procedures

(i) organization and briefing of approach;

(ii) descent; and

(iii) pre-landing check and cabin security.

(r) Landing and Taxiing

(i) contaminated runway operations; and

(ii) after landing checks.

(s) Shutdown

(t) Flight and Maintenance Logs and Records

(u) Defect Recording & Clearing

(v) Emergency Procedures

(i) Hi-jack bomb threat procedures;

(ii) aeroplane evacuation;

(iii) airport emergency services; and

(iv) engine inoperative procedures.

(33) Line Indoctrination for Flight Crew Members other than Cruise Relief Pilots - Sectors/Hours Requirements
(amended 2004/12/01)

(a) General

(i) During line indoctrination, a flight crew member shall be given the minimum flight times and sectors in accordance with this subsection, while performing the duties appropriate to the crew station.

(ii) Each pilot shall perform or show knowledge of, as applicable, a mandatory list of operating manoeuvres and procedures as detailed in subsection 725.124(32).

(iii) Sectors/hours acquired during proving or ferry flights may be counted towards this requirement. The required number of flying hours and sectors apply to the pilot-in-command, the second-in-command, the second officer and the flight engineer.
(amended 1998/09/01)

(b) Definitions

(i) "Group of aeroplanes", for the purpose of line indoctrination, means reciprocating engined, turbo-propeller engined or turbo-jet engined aeroplanes.

(ii) "Sector", for the purpose of line indoctrination, means a flight composed of a take-off, departure, arrival and landing including at least a 50 NM enroute segment, except that, for the line indoctrination of a cruise relief pilot, it means only the minimum 50 NM enroute segment of the flight.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(i) Initial line indoctrination is required for crew members who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on the same group of aeroplanes.

(ii) Transition line indoctrination is authorized for crew members who have qualified and served in the same capacity on the same group of aeroplanes.

(d) Initial Line Indoctrination - Requirements

(i) initial line indoctrination shall be conducted under the supervision of a training pilot;

(ii) during initial line indoctrination, the pilot-in-command and second-in-command shall perform their duties in their respective position, with the training pilot occupying the opposite pilot operating position;

(iii) Sectors Requirement
(amended 1998/09/01)

Initial line indoctrination requires:

(A) the pilot to complete 4 mandatory sectors, 2 sectors of which to be performed as pilot flying and 2 sectors as pilot not flying;

(B) second officers or flight engineers to complete 2 sectors;

(iv) Flight Time Requirements

(A) Aeroplanes with Reciprocating Engines

(I) 15 hours; and

(II) after completing the 4 mandatory sectors, the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for each additional sector flown to a maximum reduction of 7.5 hours;

(B) Aeroplanes with Turbo-propeller Engines

(I) 20 hours; and

(II) after completing the 4 mandatory sectors, the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for each additional sector flown to a maximum reduction of 10 hours;

(I) 25 hours; and

(II) no reduction of the original time requirement shall be permitted.

(e) Transition Line Indoctrination - Requirements

(i) transition line indoctrination shall be conducted under the supervision of a training pilot;

(ii) during transition line indoctrination, the pilot-in-command and second-in-command shall perform their duties in their respective position. Where the transitioning pilot has completed at least 2 sectors as pilot flying and has satisfactorily demonstrated to the training pilot that he or she is qualified to perform the duties of the position, the training pilot may occupy the jump seat;

(iii) Sectors Requirement
(amended 1998/09/01)

Transition line indoctrination requires:

(A) the pilot to complete 4 mandatory sectors, 2 sectors of which to be performed as pilot flying and 2 sectors as pilot not flying, or 3 sectors as pilot flying and 1 sector as pilot not flying;

(B) the second officer or flight engineer to complete 2 sectors;

(iv) Flight Time Requirements

(A) Aeroplanes with Reciprocating Engines

(I) 10 hours; and

(II) after completing the 4 mandatory sectors, the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for each additional sector flown to a maximum reduction of 5 hours;

(B) Aeroplanes with Turbo-propeller Engines

(I) 12 hours; and

(II) after completing the 4 mandatory sectors, the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for each additional sector flown to a maximum reduction of 6 hours;

(I) 25 hours; and

(II) after completing the 4 mandatory sectors, the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for each additional sector flown to a maximum reduction of 12.5 hours.

(34) Line Indoctrination Training for Flight Attendants

(a) Groupings
(amended 2003/06/01)

(i) Line indoctrination shall be completed within ninety (90) days following the completion of the air operator's initial training on each aeroplane type that a person will be assigned a crew member station within the following groupings:
(amended 2003/06/01)

* Turbo-jet aeroplanes; or

* Pressurized propeller driven aeroplanes; or

* Unpressurized propeller driven aeroplanes.

(ii) Where an air operator operates and a flight attendant is assigned to duty on more than one type of aeroplane in a grouping, line indoctrination may be completed on any one type in that grouping.
(amended 2003/06/01)

(b) Record of Training
(amended 2003/06/01)

A record of training shall be kept for each trainee and shall be signed by the instructor certifying that line indoctrination has been completed. The record shall include: aeroplane type, date, flight number and specify individual or group format.

A flight attendant trainee shall complete individual line indoctrination training on a revenue flight in accordance with the requirements set out in subparagraph (i), or shall act as an observer during a group line indoctrination flight in accordance with the requirements set out in subparagraph (ii).

(i) Individual Line Indoctrination Training
(amended 2003/06/01)

A uniformed flight attendant trainee shall:
(amended 2003/06/01)

(A) be assigned to two revenue flights with passengers onboard, each composed of a take-off and landing and at least 30 minutes at the normal cruising altitude for the aeroplane;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(B) be assigned a flight attendant station and perform the duties of a flight attendant under the supervision of a qualified flight attendant;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(C) be in addition to the number of required crew members for the operation of the flight and the aeroplane type with the ratio of trainees to qualified flight attendants not greater than one to one; and
(amended 2003/06/01)

(D) participate in:
(amended 2003/06/01)

(I) reporting for duty;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(II) pre-flight crew briefings;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(III) pre-flight safety and emergency equipment checks;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(IV) passenger boarding procedures;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(V) door closing and, if applicable, associated slide arming procedures;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(VI) pre-flight passenger safety briefings/demonstrations;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(VII) pre-flight and pre-landing warnings and checks, and securing of cabins and galleys;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(VIII) silent review;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(IX) post take-off procedures;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(X) in-flight procedures pertaining to safety;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(XI) cabin unserviceabilities reporting/recording; and
(amended 2003/06/01)

(XII) a debriefing immediately following completion of line indoctrination;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(ii) Group Line Indoctrination Training
(amended 2003/06/01)

(A) A flight attendant trainee shall act as an observer during a group line indoctrination flight when the flight is conducted under the following conditions:
(amended 2003/06/01)

(I) is non-revenue;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(II) is composed of a take-off and landing, including a period of at least one hour at the normal cruising altitude for the aeroplane;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(III) does not concurrently include any flight crew member training, or carry any persons or personnel that are not essential to the exercise;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(IV) operated with qualified flight attendants assigned to each flight attendant station, but not less than the minimum number of qualified flight attendants required for the operation of the flight and the aeroplane type, and a flight attendant supervisor is assigned to each cabin in the aeroplane where trainees are seated;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(V) includes degrees of simulated in-flight turbulence where such conditions are not encountered during the normal course of the operation and includes the flight attendant procedures associated with turbulence;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(VI) includes a "rapid descent" of several thousand feet;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(VII) includes a missed approach / rejected landing;
(amended 2003/06/01

(VIII) includes a procedure that has been established to identify an actual emergency should such occur during the exercise;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(IX) is followed by a debriefing; and
(amended 2003/06/01)

(B) A flight attendant trainee shall observe and simultaneously receive a verbal commentary pertaining to:
(amended 2003/06/01)

(I) reporting for duty;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(II) pre-flight crew briefing;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(III) pre-flight safety and emergency equipment checks;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(IV) passenger boarding procedures;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(V) door closing and, if applicable, associated slide arming procedures;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(VI) pre-flight passenger safety briefings/demonstrations;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(VII) pre-flight and pre-landing warnings and checks, and securing of cabins and galleys;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(VIII) silent review;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(IX) post take-off procedures;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(X) in-flight procedures pertaining to safety;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(XI) cabin unserviceabilities reporting/recording;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(XII) in-flight turbulence procedures;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(XIII) rapid descent procedures associated with a rapid decompression;
(amended 2003/06/01)

(XIV) procedures associated with a missed approach/rejected landing; and
(amended 2003/06/01)

(XV) procedures associated with preparation for an emergency landing and evacuation.
(amended 2003/06/01)

(35) Route and Aerodrome Qualifications Training

(a) For aerodrome qualification, the pilot-in-command shall demonstrate knowledge of:

(i) terrain and minimum safe altitude;

(ii) seasonal meteorological conditions;

(iii) meteorological, communication and air traffic facilities, services and procedures;

(iv) navigational facilities;

(v) applicable aerodrome operating weather minima;

(vi) procedures applicable to flight paths over heavily populated areas and areas of high traffic density; and

(vii) obstructions, physical layout, approach aids and arrival, departure, holding and instrument approach procedures.

(b) For area qualification, the pilot-in-command shall demonstrate knowledge of:

(i) significant terrain overflown, (as applicable);

(ii) search and rescue procedures;

(iii) meteorological, communication and air traffic facilities, services and procedures;

(iv) navigational facilities; and

(v) procedures to be used during contingencies.

(36) Extended Twin-Engine Operations (ETOPS) for Flight Crew Members
(amended 2007/06/30)

Flight crew practices and procedures for ETOPS operations shall be standardized in the air operator's training program/syllabus, with the exception of the concept and implications of ETOPS operation in a benign area of operation which shall only be defined in the air operator's operations manual.

Only ETOPS qualified pilots shall be designated for flight training and/or checking for ETOPS operations.

(a) Initial training for flight crew members

Subject to paragraph 725.124(36)(c), ETOPS initial training requirements shall be completed by each flight crew member that has not operated in an actual or simulated ETOPS environment for a period of 24 consecutive months or more.

The air operator's training program, with respect to ETOPS operations, shall include the initial training to be provided for each flight crew member in the following areas but not limited to:

(i) Ground training

(A) introduction to regulations, standards and associated operational approval that are applicable to the air operator's ETOPS operation;

(B) familiarization with AFM Type Design approval for ETOPS;

(D) familiarization with the location of adequate airports and the requirements permitting them to be designated as ETOPS alternate airports;

(E) detailed review of the air operator's ETOPS procedures including:

(I) dispatch procedures including the applicability of MEL items sensitive to ETOPS operations prior to the aeroplane being dispatched;

(II) navigational procedures required in the applicable ETOPS areas of operation;

(III) communication procedures required in the applicable ETOPS areas of operation;

(IV) procedures to evaluate the aeroplane's system capability prior to entering an ETOPS area of operation;

(V) diversion procedures and associated operational restrictions, if applicable and required, in the event of a failure or foreseeable failure of a single or multiple ETOPS significant system in any phase of flight, including:

1) emergency, abnormal or non-normal procedures as applicable,

2) procedures for in-flight restart of the propulsion systems and APU, if required, and

3) crew incapacitation;

(VI) procedures to be followed during any phase of flight in the event that there is a change in conditions at designated ETOPS alternate airports that would preclude a safe approach and landing;

(VII) procedures to ensure the use of emergency equipment including protective breathing and ditching equipment;

(VIII) procedures to effectively understand the use of approved additional or modified equipment required for ETOPS;

(IX) fuel requirements and management procedures to be followed during the enroute portion of the flight such as, but not limited to, independent crosscheck of fuel quantity indicators; and

Information Note:

fuel flows could be used to calculate fuel burned and compared to indicate fuel remaining.

(X) procedures to complete the flight crew documentation;

(F) performance, including:

(I) the use of performance data on one engine inoperative within the range of altitudes and weight configuration at which a diversion could occur;

(II) flight planning and plotting including all contingencies;

(III) flight performance progress monitoring; and

(IV) the effect of solar flare activity, cosmic radiation and HF propagation; and

(G) fuel and oil requirements including:

(I) minimum requirement;

(II) contingency fuel reserve; and

(III) critical fuel scenario.

If an element of the initial ETOPS ground training listed in subparagraph 725.124(36)(a)(i) is already covered in another part of the air operator's training program, the air operator may be credited for that training element provided there is a cross reference statement in the air operator's training program and that the element is trained for in the context of ETOPS operations.

(ii) Examination

(iii) Flight training and checking

(A) Upon successful completion of a comprehensive examination required in subparagraph 725.124(36)(a)(ii), each flight crew member shall complete at least one sector of line indoctrination under the supervision of a qualified training pilot, in an actual ETOPS environment in the aeroplane where the flight crew member meets the applicable requirements of section 705.106;

(B) In addition to the elements specific to ETOPS during a walk around, each of the elements listed in subparagraph 725.124(36)(a)(i) shall be reviewed during the line indoctrination flight required in clause 725.124(36)(a)(iii)(A); and

(C) Upon satisfactory completion of the requirement of clause 725.124(36)(a)(iii)(B), each flight crew member shall complete an initial ETOPS line check in an actual ETOPS environment with a qualified check pilot assessing the comprehension of each of the elements listed in subparagraph 725.124(36)(a)(i). The ETOPS initial line check may be completed as an integral part of the line check required by paragraph 705.106(1)(d).

(b) Recurrent training for flight crew members

Subject to paragraph 725.124(36)(c), ETOPS ground recurrent training shall be completed by each flight crew member every 12 months or when a flight crew member has not operated in an actual ETOPS environment for a period of 13 consecutive months or more.

The air operator's training program with respect to ETOPS operations shall include an annual recurrent training to be provided to each flight crew member in the following areas:

(i) Ground training

(A) Review of new regulations, standards and operational approvals, if applicable, that are applicable to the air operator's ETOPS operation (if applicable);

(B) Review of new AFM Type Design approval for ETOPS (if applicable);

(D) Summary review of the air operator's procedures listed in subclauses 725.124(36)(a)(i)(E)(I) to (X);

(E) Review of the performance and fuel management requirements and procedures; and

(ii) Flight checking

(A) Subject to clause 725.124(36)(b)(ii)(C), the air operator shall ensure that:

(I) A percentage of line checks, required under section 705.106, is conducted in an actual ETOPS environment;

(II) The total percentage of ETOPS line checks required in subclause 725.124(36)(b)(ii)(A)(I) meets or exceeds the air operator's total annual percentage of actual ETOPS flights on each type of aeroplane; and

(III) The ETOPS line checks are conducted with a qualified check pilot assessing the comprehension of each element listed in subparagraph 725.124(36)(b)(i) in addition to the elements specific to ETOPS during a walk around;

(B) The ETOPS line check shall be completed on a minimum of one sector in the aeroplane; and

(C) A flight crew member that has not operated in an actual ETOPS environment for a period exceeding 13 consecutive months shall, prior to resuming actual ETOPS operation:

(I) complete a recurrent annual ground training as per the requirements of subparagraph 725.124(36)(b)(i); and

(II) complete a recurrent ETOPS line check in an actual ETOPS environment with a qualified check pilot assessing the comprehension of each of the elements listed in subparagraph 725.124(36)(b)(i) in addition to the elements specific to ETOPS, during a walk around.

(c) Each flight crew member who meets the applicable requirements of section 705.106 for a new aeroplane type and for which the validity period of the ETOPS training requirements of paragraphs 725.124(36)(a) and (b) has not expired for a previously flown aeroplane type, shall:

(A) complete only those elements of the recurrent ground training requirements of subparagraph 725.124(36)(b)(i) applicable to the new type; and

(B) complete an ETOPS recurrent line check only as per the schedule of clause 725.124(36)(b)(ii)(A), provided that all of those elements identified in subparagraph 725.124(36)(b)(i) are reviewed to the satisfaction of a qualified training pilot on an actual ETOPS flight in the new aeroplane type during the line indoctrination required in section 705.106.

(37) Category II and III Operations

(a) Initial and Recurrent Ground Training
(amended 2006/06/30)

The air operator's initial and annual recurrent ground training program shall provide training for pilots-in-command (as pilot-flying), seconds-in-command (as pilot-not-flying) and, where applicable, second officers in the following subjects:
(amended 2011/06/30)

(i) the characteristics, capabilities and limitations of the ILS, including the effect on system performance of interference from other airborne or taxiing aircraft and ground vehicles;

(ii) the characteristics of the visual aids and the limitations on their use as visual cues in reduced visibilities with various glide path angles and cockpit cut-off angles, and the height at which various cues may be expected to become visible in actual operations;

(iii) the operation, capabilities and limitations of the airborne systems;

(iv) approach, missed approach and rejected landing procedures and techniques including the description of the factors affecting the height loss during a missed approach in normal and abnormal aircraft configurations;

(v) the use and limitations of RVR, including the applicability of RVR readings from different positions along the runway;

(vi) a basic understanding of obstacle limitation and the obstacle-free zone, including missed approach design criteria, obstacle clearance for CAT II/III operations and obstacle clearance during a go-around and rejected landing;

(vii) the effects of low level windshear, turbulence and precipitation;

(viii) procedures and techniques for transition from instrument to visual flight in low RVR conditions, including the geometry of eye, wheel and antenna positions with reference to ILS reference datum height;

(ix) the action to be taken if the visual reference becomes inadequate when the aircraft is below decision height, and the technique to be adopted for transition from visual to instrument flight should a go-around become necessary at these low heights;

(x) the action to be taken in the event of failure of approach and landing equipment above and below decision height or alert height;

(xi) the recognition of, and action to be taken in the event of failure of ground equipment;

(xii) significant factors in the determination of decision height/or alert height;

(xiii) the effect of specific aircraft malfunctions (e.g. engine failure) on auto-throttle and auto-pilot performance;

(xiv) procedures and precautions to be followed while taxiing during limited visibility conditions; and

(xv) standard operating procedures to be followed by crew members during normal, abnormal and emergency situations.

The air operator's annual recurrent ground training program shall cover the above subjects over a definite period of time (through a cycle).

(b) Initial training for the pilot-in-command, as pilot-flying and second-in-command as pilot-not-flying, on a synthetic flight training device
(amended 2004/12/01)

(i) two approaches, one of the approaches to be in an engine out configuration if the air operator's equipment is so certified and is approved to perform the manoeuvre;

(ii) a missed approach from the lowest minima authorized for the air operator or a rejected landing, as applicable;
(amended 2011/06/30)

(iii) an automatic landing from one of the approaches or manual landing as appropriate, at the maximum crosswind authorized; and

(iv) for those CAT III operations predicated on the use of a fail-passive rollout control system, a manual rollout using visual reference or a combination of visual and instrument references.

(c) Annual training, or training periods as specified in an approved advanced qualification program for the pilot-in-command, synthetic flight training device
(amended 2006/06/30)

(i) one category II or III approach to a landing; and

(ii) a missed approach from the lowest minima authorized for the air operator, or a rejected landing as applicable.
(amended 2011/06/30)

(38) One-Engine Inoperative Ferry Flight Training

(a) General

(i) flight crew members' approval to conduct a one-engine inoperative ferry flight is contingent upon completion of this training program;

(ii) wherever possible, one-engine inoperative ferry flight training shall be conducted in a synthetic flight training device; and

(iii) the pilot-in-command must be checked annually and certified competent by an approved check pilot or a Transport Canada - Civil Aviation inspector.

(b) Ground Training

(i) review of the air operator's company operations manual for one-engine inoperative ferry flights including:

(A) pre-flight, in-flight and post flight procedures;

(B) procedures for obtaining company authority for each individual ferry flight, including the names of officials who are authorized to grant such authority;

(D) the responsibility of the pilot-in-command to comply at all times with the operating conditions laid down in the ferry flight permit;

(E) the post flight reporting requirements; and

(F) the requirements for the crews to be trained and current to conduct one-engine inoperative ferry flights;

(ii) limitations; and

(iii) performance.

(i) All flight training shall be done in a synthetic flight training device or in the aeroplane.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(ii) Initial synthetic flight training device training shall include:
(amended 1998/03/23)

(A) two take-offs with one-engine inoperative, including one with the most critical engine inoperative; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(B) two instrument approaches and landings with one-engine inoperative, including one with the most critical engine inoperative.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(iii) Annual synthetic flight training device training shall include:
(amended 1998/03/23)

(A) one take-off with the most critical engine inoperative; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(B) one instrument approach and landing with the most critical engine inoperative.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(iv) Aeroplane initial or annual training shall include:
(amended 1998/03/23)

(A) one take-off with the most critical engine at simulated zero thrust; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(B) one simulated approach and landing with the most critical engine at simulated zero thrust.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(d) Aeroplane Training

The aeroplane training shall include:

(i) one take-off with the most critical engine at zero thrust; and

(ii) one simulated approach and landing with the most critical engine at zero thrust.

(39) Crew Resource Management Training
(effective 2019/01/31)

An air operator shall provide Crew Resource Management Training (CRM) to flight crew, flight attendants, dispatchers/flight followers, ground crew and maintenance personnel, in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection.

Information Note: The training described in this subsection will be tailored to the needs and size of the organization. CRM training should cover the operator’s safety culture, its company culture, the type of operations and the associated procedures of the operator. This should include areas of operations that may lead to particular difficulties or involve unusual hazards.

(a) Initial training is to be conducted every three years and shall cover the following items :
- (i) threat and error management;
- (ii) communications;
- (iii) situational awareness;
- (iv) pressures and stress;
- (v) fatigue;
- (vi) workload management;
- (vii) decision making;
- (viii) leadership and team building;
- (ix) automation and technology management; and
- (x) relevant case study.
(effective 2020/12/09)
(b) Annual training in safety and emergency procedures shall comprise of a joint participation of flight crew, flight attendants, dispatchers/flight followers, ground crew and maintenance personnel, as applicable, and shall cover the following items:
- (i) threat and error management;
- (ii) an in-depth review of a minimum of three additional core elements as found in subparagraphs (a)(ii) through (a)(ix);
- (iii) relevant case study;
- (iv) a review and discussion of current safety trends within the operator’s specific operation(s) and industry; and
- (v) crew member evacuation drills, including debriefing.

(40) Airborne Icing Training
(amended 1998/09/01)

(a) Approved initial and recurrent training programs for all flight crew shall include airborne icing training to ensure that the crew is fully aware of the hazards presented by airborne icing and the operating procedures to avoid and exit hazardous icing conditions.

(b) The training program shall include:

(i) basis of certification for flight into known icing conditions;

(ii) airborne icing definitions and terminology;

(iii) aerodynamic effects of airborne icing;

(iv) airborne icing weather patterns, including both classical and non-classical mechanisms for freezing precipitation;

(v) flight planning and in flight icing information;

(vi) information specific to aircraft fleet concerning operation de-ice and anti-ice equipment, and operational procedures; and

(vii) company directives concerning operations in airborne icing contained in COMs, SOPs, and other company documents.

(42) Carry-On Baggage Control Training
(amended 1998/03/23)

(a) This training is required under subsection 725.42(5) and is mandatory for all employees and agents involved in carry-on baggage control.

(b) Training shall cover the list of elements in subsection 725.42(7).

(46) Safe Movement of Passengers to and from the Aeroplane
(amended 1998/03/23)

(a) This training is required under subsection 725.40(1) and is mandatory for crew members, ground handling and passenger agent staff (including contract personnel) involved with the transfer of passengers between the terminal building and the aeroplane.

(b) Training shall cover the list of subjects in subsection 725.40(1).

(47) Fuelling with Passengers on Board - Emergency Evacuation Procedures Training
(amended 1998/03/23)

(a) This training is required under paragraph 725.40(2)(o) and is mandatory for personnel in replacement of flight attendants when the aeroplane is being refuelled with passengers on board.

(b) The standard for such training is in the Flight Attendant Training Standard and must include the following elements of this publication:

(i) Evacuations (Initial - Part 4, Section 4):
(amended 2006/06/30)

(A) 4.4A.1-2;
(amended 2006/06/30)

(B) 4.4A.5;
(amended 2006/06/30)

(D) 4.4B.7;
(amended 2006/06/30)

(E) 4.4C.1;
(amended 2006/06/30)

(F) 4.4C.5;
(amended 2006/06/30)

(G) 4.4D.1;

(H) 4.4F.1-8;
(amended 2006/06/30)

(I) 4.4G.1-4;
(amended 2006/06/30)

(J) 4.4I.1(b);
(amended 2006/06/30)

(K) 4.4I.1(g);
(amended 2006/06/30)

(L) 4.4J.1;
(amended 2006/06/30)

(M) 4.4K.1; and
(amended 2006/06/30)

(N) 4.4K.3-4
(amended 2006/06/30)

(ii) Drills (Initial - Part 7):
(amended 2006/06/30)

(A) 7.3, Aircraft Exit Operation Drills;

(B) 7.4.3, Evacuation Drills, Unprepared, items iii-vi and items vii to xvii; and

NOTE:

Emergency Procedures Training for Pilots as required by subsection 725.124(14) is equivalent to the training set out in this Subsection.

(48) Controlled Flight into Terrain (CFIT) Avoidance Training
(amended 2000/06/01)

Subject to paragraph (d), air operators shall provide the following CFIT avoidance training to all flight crew members operating aeroplanes approved for flight under instrument meteorological conditions:

(a) initial and annual ground training:

(i) factors that may lead to CFIT accidents and incidents,

(ii) operational characteristics, capabilities, and limitations of GPWS (if applicable),

(iii) CFIT prevention strategies,

(iv) methods of improving situational awareness, and

(v) escape manoeuvre techniques and profiles applicable to the aeroplane type;

(b) air operators with GPWS equipment using synthetic training devices in their approved initial training program shall conduct CFIT avoidance training as follows:

(i) one escape manoeuvre performed in VMC in response to a GPWS warning, and

(ii) one escape manoeuvre performed in IMC in response to a GPWS warning;

(c) air operators with GPWS equipment using synthetic training devices in their approved recurrent training program shall conduct CFIT awareness training biennially as follows:

(i) one escape manoeuvre performed in VMC in response to a GPWS warning where the air operator is approved for VFR only operations, or

(ii) one escape manoeuvre performed in IMC in response to a GPWS warning where the air operator is approved for IFR operations;

(d) where the flight crew members operate aircraft equipped with a Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS), the training received on TAWS is considered to have met the requirements of paragraphs (a), (b) and 525.857(c).

(49) Low-Energy Awareness Training
(amended 2000/12/01)

(a) Initial and recurrent ground and flight training is required for all flight crew members operating turbo-jet aeroplanes;

(b) Ground training shall include:

(i) low-energy landing regime for the aircraft type,

(ii) aircraft and engine handling and performance characteristics in the low-energy regime, and

(iii) aircraft balked landing procedures;

(c) Where flight training is conducted in a synthetic training device this training shall include one balked landing initiated in the low-energy regime.

(50) Engine Failure/Malfunction Recognition Training
(amended 2000/12/01)

(a) Initial and recurrent ground and flight training is required for all flight crew members;

(b) The ground training shall include:

(i) potential engine malfunctions and their causes,

(ii) proper identification of the malfunctions, and

(iii) proper responses to the malfunctions or failures;

(i) in a synthetic training device (where applicable), and

(ii) in approved simulators for all flight crews operating High Bypass Ratio Engines.

(51) Flight Deck Admission Control Training
(amended 2002/03/21)

(a) An air operator shall provide initial and recurrent ground training to all its crew members on the following procedures:

(i) procedures for controlling admission to the flight deck of an aeroplane;

(ii) procedures for verifying the identity of any person authorized to be admitted to the flight deck;

(iii) procedures for entering and leaving the flight deck, including procedures for opening, closing and locking the flight deck door;

(iv) procedures for enabling a crew member to enter the flight deck in the event that a flight crew member becomes incapacitated; and

(v) if the aeroplane is equipped with a crew rest facility having a separate entry from the flight deck and from the passenger compartment, procedures for controlling the usage of the door between the crew rest facility and the passenger compartment.

(b) All crew members shall receive initial ground training prior to April 9, 2003, on the procedures listed in subparagraphs (a)(i) to (v); after that date, each new crew member shall receive initial ground training on these procedures and all crew members shall receive recurrent ground training on these procedures at least every three years.

(52) Pacific RNP-10 Training
(amended 2002/12/01)

For a flight crew member to qualify for operations in Pacific RNP-10 airspace, an air operator shall have initial and recurrent approved training programs that ensure that each flight crew member is proficient in the following areas:

(a) flight planning for RNP-10 airspace;

(b) navigation performance requirements for RNP-10 airspace;

(d) contingency procedures for RNP-10 airspace.

(53) Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) Training
(amended 2002/12/01)

For a flight crew member to qualify for operations in RVSM airspace, an air operator shall have initial and recurrent approved training programs that ensure that each flight crew member is proficient in the following areas:

(a) knowledge of the floor, ceiling and horizontal boundaries of the RVSM airspace to be operated in;

(b) rules on exclusion of non-RVSM compliant aircraft;

(i) pre-flight and in-flight altimeter checks,

(ii) use of the automatic altitude control system,

(iii) Minimum Equipment List (MEL) items applicable to RVSM operations,

(iv) special procedures for in-flight contingencies,

(v) weather deviation procedures,

(vi) track offset procedures for wake turbulence and inconsequential collision avoidance systems alerts, and

(vii) pilot level-off call;

(d) procedures for flight of non-RVSM compliant aircraft for maintenance, humanitarian or delivery flights; and

(e) use of ACAS/TCAS.

(54) Stabilized Constant-Descent-Angle (SCDA) Non-Precision Approach Training
(amended 2006/12/01)

The air operator shall ensure that the pilot-in-command and the second-in-command, in order to be able to conduct a stabilized constant-descent-angle (SCDA) non-precision approach, receive ground and simulator or flight training that addresses the following subjects within their initial and recurrent training programs:

(a) factors that affect altitude loss during the initiation of a missed approach;

(b) the relationship between the published missed approach point (MAP) and the position where a missed approach is commenced following a stabilized final approach descent to minimum descent altitude (MDA);

Information Note:

The missed approach climb from a stabilized final approach descent will normally occur some distance before reaching the published MAP.

(c) the requirement to initiate a missed approach if the required visual reference necessary to continue to land has not been established, at the latest on reaching the earlier of:

(i) the minimum descent altitude, and

(ii) the MAP;

(d) the requirement to commence the horizontal (lateral) navigation portion of the published missed approach procedure at the MAP;

Information Note:

It may be essential for obstacle clearance to delay any turns stated in the published missed approach procedure until the aircraft crosses the MAP.

(e) the requirement to ensure that any altitudes at step-down fixes between the final approach fix (FAF) and the MAP are respected;

(f) the operation of any aircraft computer-generated approach slope systems or other methods of computing stable approach paths to the target touchdown point;

Information Note:

The effects of horizontal position error and temperature on the vertical path, whether it is derived from an inertial, barometric vertical navigation (Baro VNAV), or altimeter reference, shall be addressed.

(g) the requirement to verify any altitude and waypoint information from a navigation database against an independent source;

(h) crew coordination upon reaching MDA and during the execution of a missed approach; and

(i) utilization of temperature corrections to MDA and other published altitudes and remote altimeter correction factors, when required.

(55) Simultaneous Operations on Parallel or Near-Parallel Instrument Runways – ILS/Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) and Localizer Type Directional Aid (LDA)/PRM - Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approaches (SOIA) Training
(amended 2008/12/30)

(a) Training materials shall include:

(i) The published ILS/PRM and LDA/PRM - SOIA approach charts, and

(ii) The current FAA-produced and approved ILS PRM video entitled "ILS/PRM Approaches Information for Air Carrier Pilots".

(b) Initial Ground Training

(i) An air operator shall provide initial ground training to its flight crew members on the following procedures:

(A) ILS/PRM approach, and

(B) LDA/PRM – SOIA;

(ii) Before ILS/PRM or LDA/PRM - SOIA approaches may be carried out, each flight crew member shall have completed the initial ground training; and

(iii) The training shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures established in the air operator company operations manual.

(i) Each flight crew member shall complete an ILS/PRM or an LDA/PRM - SOIA approach with a climbing or descending breakout manoeuvre under the supervision of an instructor, training pilot or a check pilot; and

(ii) The training shall be completed within 12 months from the date of approval of their PRM training program.

(d) Recurrent Ground Training

An air operator shall provide recurrent ground training to its flight crew members by providing a review of the ground training elements and the video referred to in paragraph (a) above.

(56) Unruly Passenger and Interference with a Crew Member Training Program
(amended 2009/06/10)

(a) The Unruly Passenger and Interference with a Crew Member Initial Training Program shall include, as applicable to the duties of the operational personnel:

(i) the air operator's policy with respect to:

(A) interference with a crew member, and

(B) unruly passengers;

(ii) the definitions of:

(A) interference with a crew member,

(B) levels of interference,

(D) aggressive behaviour, and

(E) intimidation;

(iii) the air operator's procedures to prevent, manage and protect against interference with a crew member;

(iv) the hazards associated with interference with a crew member;

(v) the requirement to deny transporting persons whose actions or statements indicate the person may pose a risk to safety, and the responsibilities of operational personnel associated with this requirement;

(vi) the methods and procedures to detect and prevent unruly passenger behaviour, including:

(A) the importance of early detection, intervention and prevention, and

(B) factors that influence behaviour, causes and effects;

(vii) the air operator's specific procedures for:

(A) early detection and prevention of a potential incident, and

(B) prevention of the escalation of an incident;

(viii) methods of preventing or defusing volatile situations or aggressive behaviour;

(ix) techniques and skills to manage conflict;

(x) methods to maintain personal safety during an incident;

(xi) resources available when an incident occurs;

(xii) the importance, methods and contents of normal and discreet communication between operational personnel:

(A) to prevent boarding an unruly passenger, and

(B) when an incident occurs;

(xiii) the means and safe application of passenger restraints during incidents, including the safety of the restrained passenger;

(xiv) specific procedures for dealing with incidents involving:

(A) intimidation, physical and verbal assaults and threatening behaviour towards operational personnel by a passenger or a person about to board an aircraft,

(B) alcohol consumption and smoking on board, and

(xv) procedures for limiting and controlling passenger access to areas in the vicinity of the flight deck door;

(xvi) special considerations for multi-cabin aircraft and single cabin aircraft;

(xvii) special considerations for single flight attendant and multi flight attendant operations;

(xviii) procedures for gathering evidence at the time of the incident;

(xix) procedures on when to report incidents and the responsibilities and procedures for completing written reports;

(xx) identification of the factors which may influence the trauma on the operational personnel involved in an incident and the potential post-incident effects;

(xxi) mechanisms to ensure support to operational personnel who have been affected by a traumatic incident;

(xxii) identification of the air operator's support system available to those who may be asked to testify regarding incidents of interference with a crew member;

(xxiii) the role of the legal system including:

(A) the legal authority of the pilot-in-command,

(B) the role of police authorities when on board,

(D) information to be included in statements to police authorities,

(E) police authority involvement when an incident occurs on the ground and following an incident that has occurred during flight,

(F) preparation as a witness for legal proceedings following an incident where charges have been laid, and

(G) review of all relevant laws and regulations including those that prohibit smoking on board the aircraft, boarding a passenger who appears to be intoxicated, service of alcohol on board to someone who appears to be intoxicated and acts of violence or disturbance of public peace, such as those contained in the Criminal Code.

(b) The Unruly Passenger and Interference with a Crew Member Annual Training Program shall include, as applicable to the operational personnel's duties, a review of:

(i) incidents that occurred during the past year;

(ii) any changes to procedures that occurred during the past year;

(iii) the procedures;

(iv) the methods of maintaining personal safety;

(v) the methods of preventing or defusing volatile situations or aggressive behaviour;

(vi) the techniques and skills to manage conflict; and

(vii) the means and safe application of passenger restraints during incidents including the safety of the restrained passenger.

(57) In-charge Flight Attendant Training Program
(effective 2016/08/01)

(a) The in-charge flight attendant training shall include the following elements:

(i) operating as a leader:

(A) one crew concept;

(B) team building and maintenance; and

(ii) flight preparation - general:

(A) allocation of flight attendant stations and responsibilities; and

(B) consideration of the particular flight including:

(I) aeroplane model;

(II) equipment;

(III) area and type of operation; and

(IV) categories of passengers, including special needs passengers;

(iii) cooperation within the crew:

(A) discipline, responsibilities and chain of command;

(B) importance of coordination and communication;

(D) announcements; and

(E) crew member incapacitation;

(iv) review of operators’ requirements and regulatory requirements:

(A) passengers safety briefing;

(B) safety features cards;

(D) stowage of cabin baggage;

(E) electronic equipment;

(F) procedures when fuelling with passengers on board;

(G) turbulence; and

(H) documentation, including cabin log book entries;

(v) human factors and crew resource management; and

(vi) accident and incident reporting.

Information Note:

This training is intended to develop the leadership, coordination and situational management skills necessary for in-charge flight attendants to fulfill their responsibilities for the conduct and coordination of normal and emergency procedures in an aircraft where the crew includes more than one flight attendant. For example, how the in-charge flight attendant should assess a situation (particularly in circumstances that had not been clearly defined), assign roles and responsibilities among the flight attendants, coordinate the gathering of information and coordinate the dissemination of information.

(58) Training for Flight Attendants Assigned to Open More than One Exit During an Aeroplane Emergency Evacuation
(effective 2016/08/01)

(a) Initial and annual training for flight attendants assigned to open more than one exit during an aeroplane emergency evacuation shall include:

(i) methods of passenger flow control management, including that the flight attendant is to:

(A) evaluate passenger use of exits and direct passengers to another exit to increase the number of passengers evacuating the aeroplane;

(B) continually assess the condition of exits and direct passengers to available exits; and

(C) demonstrate passenger flow control management techniques during evacuation drills including the signals and commands necessary to maximize passenger evacuation from the aeroplane;

(ii) that each flight attendant shall:

(A) where the air operator conducts the training in an actual aeroplane, open both opposite floor level exits and demonstrate passenger flow control management through both of these exits;

(B) where the air operator has a cabin emergency evacuation trainer that includes two floor level exits opposite each other, open both exits and demonstrate passenger flow control management through both of these exits;

(C) where the air operator has a cabin emergency evacuation trainer that does not include two floor level exits opposite each other:

(I) open the primary exit to which they are assigned;

(II) proceed to an area that is equal in distance as the actual second exit;

(III) simulate opening the second exit; and

(IV) demonstrate passenger flow control management; or

(D) where the air operator has a cabin mock-up that does not include two floor level exits opposite each other:

(I) simulate opening the primary exit to which they are assigned;

(II) proceed to an area that is equal in distance as the actual second exit;

(III) simulate opening the second exit; and

(IV) demonstrate passenger flow control management.

(b) Each drill shall be performed using the appropriate aeroplane, cabin emergency evacuation trainer, or cabin mock-up.

725.125 Conditional Approval of Training Program

The intent of a conditional approval of training program is to permit an air operator, when introducing a new type of aeroplane, to begin training of crew members while having in hand a proposed training program from the aircraft manufacturer or a contracting training agency. In most cases the training program is adequate to initiate the training and it will be used as a basis for an approved training program.

A training program will receive conditional approval when the following conditions are met:

(1) a training syllabus and a complete training program for initial training will have to be submitted;

(2) the training program shall include as a minimum the following, as applicable:

(a) an overview of the training program showing the requirements for initial training;

(b) a detailed content of the proposed ground training, including individual items covered in each training period in regards of technical aeroplane training, cockpit procedure training, FTD training, emergency procedures training or Flight Attendant Training Standard requirements;

(c) a detailed content of the proposed simulator and/or aeroplane training, including individual items covered in each training session;

(d) a description of the proposed training aids and training facilities; and
(amended 1999/09/01)

(e) a copy of the proposed manuals and handouts to be provided to the trainees.

725.126 Cabin Emergency Evacuation Trainer

The standard for a Cabin Emergency Evacuation Trainer is as follows:

(a) The aeroplane type(s) shall be accurately represented with respect to cabin layout and stowage for safety and emergency equipment in relation to the emergency exits provided. All features of the real aeroplane passenger and flight attendant seats adjacent to the exits must be incorporated.

(b) Each approved aeroplane exit type shall be capable of both normal and emergency operation and shall be representative in components, dimensions, weight and balance and method of operation, including extent of movement and forces. These specifications also apply to a free standing exit trainer.

(c) An appropriate surface area must be provided outside each emergency exit to enable occupants to leave the trainer during evacuation drills.

(d) The trainer need contain only those items which are representative of the aeroplane type(s) operated by the air operator.

(e) A minimum of four (4) rows of cabin seats with a proportional aisle(s) will be installed, in order to simulate a realistic cabin layout for emergency evacuation exercises/drills.

(f) The trainer shall be equipped with:

(i) a minimum of two (2) operational emergency exits (one door and one alternate exit or two (2) doors, as applicable) - plus one operational window exit (where applicable). The air operator may choose to equip the trainer with doors representative of more than one aeroplane type. Trainers may be equipped with operational exits on either port or starboard side or both;

(ii) at least one flight attendant station located at an operational exit, and additional flight attendant stations may be required depending on the grouping of exits contained in the trainer;

(iii) an operational P.A./intercom system and appropriate flight attendant panel(s) at each flight attendant station;

(iv) safety and emergency equipment of a type currently required on the aeroplane in the appropriate brackets and locations;

(v) operational flight deck and cabin call chimes;

(vi) internal cabin markings, such as placards and exit markings;

(vii) normal and emergency cabin lighting, including fail features;

(viii) Passenger Service Units (PSU's) with deployable oxygen masks for passenger and flight attendant seats;

(ix) operational 'No Smoking'/'Fasten Seat Belt' ordinance signs visible from each passenger seat and flight attendant station/position;

(x) a method of simulating an unserviceable exit(s);

(xi) fire simulation at window and door exits;

(xii) simulated cabin windows and features necessary to darken the cabin;

(xiii) facilities and sufficient speakers to simulate sound effect/crash noises audible throughout the cabin; and

(xiv) smoke simulation capabilities.

Regulatory approval for use of training devices in lieu of an aeroplane will be contingent on the compatibility of the device to the related components of the training program and issued in conjunction with program approval.

Where an air operator arranges to use the emergency evacuation trainer or free standing exit trainer owned by another air operator, the training shall comply with the approved training program and operating procedures of the air operator whose crews are being trained, and items/equipment in the trainer shall be restricted if significant differences of cabin layout and equipment exist.

Division IX - Manuals

725.135 Contents of Company Operations Manual

Information Note:
(amended 2006/06/30)

The Company Operations Manual describes how the air operator will conduct its operations. Simply quoting in the manual extracts from the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), Commercial Air Service Standards (CASS) or the guidance material is not sufficient as it does not provide a means by which the regulatory requirements are to be met.

The Company Operations Manual shall contain at least the following, as applicable to the operation:

(a) preamble relating to use and authority of manual;

(b) a table of contents;

(d) a copy of the air operator's certificate and operations specifications;

(e) a chart of the management organization;

(f) the duties, responsibilities and succession of command of management and operations personnel;

(g) description of operational control system including:

(i) flight authorization and flight preparation procedures;

(ii) preparation of operational flight plan and other flight documents;

(iii) procedures to ensure the flight crew are advised, prior to dispatch, of any aeroplane defects that have been deferred, (by Minimum Equipment List or any other means);

(iv) flight watch, flight following and communication requirements;

(v) dissemination procedures for operational information and acknowledgement;

(vi) fuel and oil requirements;

(vii) weight and balance system;

(viii) accident/incident reporting procedures and procedures for reporting overdue aircraft;

(ix) use of checklists;

(x) maintenance discrepancy reporting and requirements of completion of flight; and

(xi) sample of operational flight plan and retention period;
(amended 1999/09/01)

(h) sample of weight and balance form and retention period;
(amended 1999/09/01)

(i) FDR and CVR procedures;

(j) operating weather minima and applicable requirements for IFR, VFR, VFR at night, VFR over-the-top including alternate aerodrome requirements;

(k) instrument and equipment requirements;

(l) instrument approach procedures (including company approaches), and alternate aerodrome requirements;

(m) procedures for establishing company routes in uncontrolled airspace;

(n) procedures pertaining to enroute operation of navigation and communication equipment (including collision avoidance procedures);

(o) operations in hazardous conditions such as icing, thunderstorms, white out, windshear;

(p) aeroplane performance limitations;

(q) carriage and securing of cargo, carry on baggage, commissary and equipment; (as applicable)

(r) passenger briefing procedures;

(s) use of aircraft flight manual, aircraft operating manual, standard operating procedures and minimum equipment lists (as applicable);

(t) aeroplane ice, frost and snow critical surface contamination procedures;

(u) procedures of carriage of dangerous goods;

(v) fuelling procedures including:

(i) fuel contamination precautions;

(ii) bonding requirements;

(iii) fuelling with engine running (not permitted with passengers on board, refer section 602.09 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations); and

(iv) fuelling with passengers on board;

(w) list of emergency survival equipment carried on the aeroplane and how to use equipment;

(x) emergency procedures for:

(i) emergency locator transmitter;

(ii) passenger preparation for emergency landing/ditching;

(iii) emergency evacuation;

(iv) ground emergency coordination procedures; and

(v) unlawful interference;

(y) minimum flight crew members required and flight crew member qualifications;

(z) flight duty time limitations and rest requirements;

(aa) training programs including copy of company training and qualification record form(s);

(bb) use of oxygen;

(cc) operational support services and equipment;

(dd) passenger and cabin safety procedures;

(ee) inspection details and frequency of inspection of emergency equipment carried on board the aeroplanes;

(ff) policy regarding GPWS and TCAS; (if applicable);

(gg) procedures for the use of RNAV;

(hh) procedures for ETOPS, MNPS, CMPS and reclear flights, including log keeping, (if applicable);

(ii) a policy on occupation of observer seat; (if applicable);

(jj) a requirement for responsibility for preparing runway analysis charts;

(kk) procedures for reduced VFR limits in uncontrolled airspace; (if applicable);

(ll) crew pairing;

(mm) a prohibition for aeroplanes with unserviceable auxiliary power units from being dispatched to land at airports where ground power units are not available, or not serviceable when:

(i) the aeroplane has no internal engine start capability; and

(ii) refuelling may be necessary and the aeroplane is prohibited from being refuelled with an engine running; or

(iii) when de-icing may be necessary and the aeroplane is prohibited from being de-iced with an engine running; and

(iv) be referenced with the appropriate Section of the MEL;

(nn) carry-on baggage control program;

(oo) safety management system policy and procedures;
(amended 2005/05/31)

(pp) copies of all forms utilized including sufficient instruction on form completion;

(qq) procedures for the safe carriage of animal and cargo handlers and crew members on cargo flights when floor proximity emergency escape path markings are not available;

(rr) effective April 9, 2003:
(amended 2002/03/21)

(i) procedures for controlling admission to the flight deck of an aeroplane;

(ii) procedures for verifying the identity of any person authorized to be admitted to the flight deck;

(iii) procedures for entering and leaving the flight deck, including procedures for opening, closing and locking the flight deck door;

(iv) procedures for enabling a crew member to enter the flight deck in the event that a flight crew member becomes incapacitated; and

(ss) procedures for the use of departure contingency procedures;
(amended 2008/12/30)

(tt) recording and post-flight reporting of aircraft observation of volcanic activity, including observation of:
(amended 2008/12/30)

(i) pre-eruption volcanic activity,

(ii) a volcanic eruption, or

(iii) volcanic ash cloud;

(uu) procedures for preventing and managing incidents of interference with a crew member; and
(amended 2009/06/10)

(vv) procedures for denying transportation to persons whose actions or statements indicate they may pose a risk to safety.
(amended 2009/06/10)

725.137 Aircraft Operating Manual

An aeroplane operating manual shall consist of the following:

(1) table of contents;

(2) list of effective pages;

(3) amending procedures;

(4) preamble;

(5) identification of the aeroplane by type and registration it is applicable to;

(6) aeroplane operating procedures and limitations that are not less restrictive than those contained in the aeroplane flight manual and Canadian Aviation Regulations as amended; and

(7) aeroplane standard operating procedures meeting the requirements of section 725.138.

725.138 Standard Operating Procedures (SOP's)

The Standard Operating Procedures Manual required for compliance with the Canadian Aviation Regulations shall contain the following information for each type of aeroplane operated. Where there are significant differences in equipment and procedures between aeroplanes of the same type operated the Standard Operating Procedures Manuals shall show the registration mark of the aeroplane it is applicable to.

Required information, if contained in another publication carried on board the aeroplane during flight, it need not be repeated in the SOP.

Information Note:
(amended 2006/06/30)

The Standard Operating Procedures (SOP's) Manual describes how the air operator will conduct its operations. Simply quoting in the manual extracts from the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), Commercial Air Service Standards (CASS) or the guidance material is not sufficient as it does not provide a means by which the regulatory requirements are to be met.

The SOP shall include the following as applicable to the operation:

(1) table of contents;

(2) list of effective pages;

(3) amending procedure;

(4) preamble;

(5) communications;

(6) crew coordination;

(7) use of check lists;

(8) standard briefings;

(9) standard calls;

(10) ramp/gate procedures;

(11) battery/APU engine starts;

(12) taxi;

(13) rejected take-off;

(14) take-off and climb;

(15) cruise;

(16) descent;

(17) approaches IMC, visual, VFR, and circling;

(18) landing;

(19) missed approaches and balked landings procedures;

(20) stall recovery;

(21) fuelling with passengers onboard;

(22) use of onboard navigation and alerting aids;

(23) weight and balance control procedures;

(24) check lists;

(25) emergencies:

(a) planned and unplanned;

(b) pilot incapacitation;

(d) bomb threat and hijacking;

(e) engine fire/failure/shutdown;

(f) propeller over speed;

(g) fire, internal/external;

(h) smoke removal;

(i) rapid decompression;

(j) flapless approach and landing;

(k) any inadvertent encounter with moderated to severe in-flight icing;
(amended 1998/09/01)

(26) diagrams:

(a) normal take-off;

(b) engine out take-off;

(d) precision approach, engine out;

(e) non-precision approach, all engines operating;

(f) non-precision approach, engine out;

(g) go-around, all engines operating;

(h) go-around, engine out;

(i) VFR circuits;

(j) partial flaps/slats approach; and

(k) flapless approach.

Division XI - Interference with a Crew Member

(amended 2009/06/10)

Preventing and Managing Incidents of Interference with a Crew Member

(amended 2009/06/10)

725.172 (1) The air operator's procedures to prevent and manage incidents of interference with a crew member shall:
(amended 2009/06/10)

(a) include a statement of the air operator's policy on unruly passengers and interference with a crew member;

(b) identify the procedures to be followed when a risk to safety is detected;

(c) identify the criteria that will be used in determining the acceptance or refusal to transport a passenger or a person about to board an aircraft who may be considered a risk to safety;

(d) identify the means by which operational personnel will be notified when an incident of interference has occurred and indicate the importance of notifying other operational personnel of the occurrence of such an incident when it may expose them to the same risk;

(e) identify the factors which may contribute to unruly passenger behaviour and the means by which to eliminate them where feasible;

(f) include the means by which operational personnel can detect early indications of unruly passenger behaviour which may lead to interference with a crew member;

(g) include the methods available to prevent or defuse volatile situations or aggressive behaviour;

(h) identify the ways in which unruly passenger behaviour can constitute interference with crew members;

(i) identify the responsibilities of the operational personnel, when an incident occurs;

(j) identify when and how to determine if overriding safety of flight considerations exist and who is responsible to make this determination;

(k) identify methods of maintaining personal security during an incident;

(l) include the methods of restraining passengers including maintaining the safety of the restrained passenger;

(m) identify which authorities must be notified when an incident occurs and the procedures for notification;

(n) identify the procedures for debriefing following an incident including the personnel that should be debriefed; and

(o) identify what assistance is available to the affected employee(s) involved in an incident.

Information Note:

An air operator should review and coordinate these procedures internally to ensure there is no conflict between these procedures and their security procedures. Nothing in this standard is intended to supersede or conflict with any requirements outlined in the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations or the Air Carrier Security Measures.

Reporting Incidents of Interference with a Crew Member

(amended 2009/06/10)

725.174 (1) For the purposes of subsection 705.174(3) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations, the report for each occurrence to the air operator must include, but is not limited to, the following information:
(amended 2009/06/10)

(a) flight information including aircraft type and flight identification;

(b) date and time of incident;

(d) a description of the incident;

(e) level of interference;

(f) any suspected causal factors, if known;

(g) nature of obvious injuries to any passenger on board which resulted from the incident;

(h) nature of any injuries to any crew member on board which resulted from the incident;

(i) action(s) taken by pilot-in-command and crew member(s) during the incident and the level of success of those actions;

Information Note:

This normally includes the methods and time used to resolve the incident.

(j) involvement of police authorities;

(k) whether the incident occurred while the aircraft was on the ground or during flight and if so, what phase of flight;

(l) any available information on passenger identity; and

(m) any additional information which the crew member deems pertinent.

Information Note:

A crew member could offer their opinion as to what went well and what could be improved for future incidents. This could also include any available information that the crew member may have regarding the identity of the passenger, however does not obligate a crew member to attempt to obtain this information as such action could exacerbate an on board situation.

(2) For the purposes of subsection 705.174(5) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations, the statistics shall include the following data:
(effective 2015/09/08)

(a) the number of incidents and their level as defined in section 705.175 of the Canadian Aviation Regulations;

(b) the number, severity and type of reported injuries to passenger(s) and crew member(s);

Information Note:

The injuries can be categorized as a serious injury where medical attention is required or any injury that is likely to require admission to a hospital. Any broken limbs or lacerations requiring stitches are considered severe. Any other injury can be categorized as "Minor/Other/None".

(c) the number of incidents that occurred while the aircraft was on the ground and the number of incidents that occurred during flight phase;

(d) the suspected causal factors if known; and

(e) the number and level of incidents where law enforcement was requested.

(3) For the purposes of subsection 705.174(5) of the Canadian Aviation Regulations, the statistics shall be forwarded to the Director, Policy and Regulatory Services, Transport Canada, 330 Sparks Street, Tower C, Place de Ville, Ottawa, Ontario, K1A 0N8.
(amended 2009/06/10)

Division XII – Flight Attendants and Emergency Evacuation

(effective 2015/08/01)

725.203 Emergency Features

(effective 2015/08/01)

(a) Each passenger-carrying aeroplane emergency exit (other than over the wing) that is more than 6 feet from the ground with the aeroplane on the ground and the landing gear extended shall have an approved means to assist the occupants in descending to the ground. The assisting means for a floor level emergency exit meets the requirements of paragraph 25.809(f)(1) of Part 25, Title 14, of the Code of Federal Regulations of the United States, in the version in effect on April 30, 1972 or after that date, except that, for any aeroplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed after that date, it meets the requirements under which the aeroplane was type certificated.

(b) Each passenger emergency exit, its means of access and its means of opening are conspicuously marked and meet the following:

(i) the identity and location of each passenger emergency exit is recognizable from a distance equal to the width of the cabin; and

(ii) the location of each passenger emergency exit is indicated by a sign visible to occupants approaching along each passenger aisle. There shall be:

(A) a passenger emergency exit locator sign above each aisle near each passenger emergency exit, or at another overhead location if it is more practical because of low headroom, except that one sign may serve more than one exit if each exit can be readily seen from the sign;

(B) a passenger emergency exit marking sign next to each passenger emergency exit, except that one sign may serve two such exits if they both can be readily seen from the sign; and

(C) a sign on each bulkhead or divider that prevents fore and aft vision along the passenger cabin to indicate emergency exits beyond and obscured by the bulkhead or divider, except that if this is not possible, the sign may be placed at another appropriate location.

(i) for an aeroplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, each passenger emergency exit marking and each locator sign is manufactured to meet the requirements of subsection 25.812(b) of Part 25, Title 14, of the Code of Federal Regulations of the United States, in the version in effect on April 30, 1972 or after that date. On these aeroplanes, the luminescence (brightness) of each sign must not decrease below 100 micro lamberts. The colours may be reversed if it increases the emergency illumination of the passenger compartment; or

(ii) for an aeroplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on May 1, 1972 or after that date, each passenger emergency exit marking and each locator sign is manufactured to meet the interior emergency exit marking requirements under which the aeroplane was type certificated. On these aeroplanes, the luminescence (brightness) of each sign must not decrease below 250 micro lamberts.

(d) Each passenger-carrying aeroplane has an emergency lighting system, independent of the main lighting system. However, the sources of general cabin illumination may be common to both the emergency and the main lighting systems if the power supply to the emergency lighting system is independent of the power supply to the main lighting system. The emergency lighting system includes:

(i) illuminated emergency exit marking and locator signs, sources of general cabin illumination and interior lighting in emergency exit areas; and

(ii) general illumination in the passenger cabin is provided so that when measured along the centreline of each main passenger aisle, and any cross aisle between main aisles, at seat armrest height and at 40-inch intervals, the average illumination is not less than 0.05 foot-candle. A main passenger aisle is considered to extend along the fuselage from the most forward passenger emergency exit or cabin occupant seat, whichever is farther forward, to the most rearward passenger emergency exit or cabin occupant seat, whichever is farther aft.

(e) Except for emergency lights provided in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section that serve no more than one assist means, are independent of the aeroplane’s main emergency lighting system, and are automatically activated when the assist means is erected, the requirements of the emergency lighting system are the following:

(i) the lights are operable manually from the flight crew station and from a point in the passenger cabin that is readily accessible to a flight attendant station;

(ii) the flight deck control device has an “on”, “off”, and “armed” position so that when armed in the flight deck or turned on at either the flight deck or flight attendant station, the lights will either light or remain lighted upon interruption (except an interruption caused by a transverse vertical separation of the fuselage during crash landing) of the aeroplane’s normal electrical power. There shall be a means to safeguard against inadvertent operation of the control device from the “armed” or “on” positions;

(iii) each light is armed or turned on during taxi, takeoff and landing; and

(iv) the energy supply to each emergency lighting unit provides the required level of illumination for at least 10 minutes at the critical ambient conditions after emergency landing.

(f) The location of the operating handle and instructions for opening emergency exits from the inside of the aeroplane are shown in the following manner:

(i) each passenger emergency exit has, on or near the exit, a marking that is readable from a distance of 30 inches;

(ii) each Type A, Type B, Type C, Type I or Type II passenger emergency exit with a locking mechanism released by a rotary motion of the handle is marked:

(A) with a red arrow, with a shaft at least three-fourths of an inch wide and a head twice the width of the shaft, extending along at least 70 degrees of arc at a radius approximately equal to three-fourths of the handle length; and

(B) with the word “open” in red letters 1 inch high, placed horizontally near the head of the arrow; and

(iii) for an aeroplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on May 1, 1972 or after that date, the luminescence (brightness) of each operating handle or operating handle cover must not decrease below 100 micro lamberts.

(g) Access to emergency exits for each passenger-carrying aeroplane is provided as follows:

(i) each passageway between individual passenger areas, or leading to a Type I or Type II emergency exit, is unobstructed and at least 20 inches wide;

(ii) each Type I or Type II emergency exit equipped with an assist means has enough space next to the exit to allow a crew member to assist in the evacuation of passengers without reducing the unobstructed width of the passageway below that required in subparagraph (g)(i) of this section;

(iii) for aeroplanes manufactured on November 26, 2008 or after that date, adequate space to allow crew member(s) to assist in the evacuation of passengers is provided as follows:

(A) each assist space is a rectangle on the floor, of sufficient size to enable a crew member, standing erect, to effectively assist evacuees. The assist space shall not reduce the unobstructed width of the passageway below that required for the exit;

(B) for each Type A or Type B exit, an assist space is provided at each side of the exit regardless of whether an assist means is required by paragraph (a) of this section;

(C) for each Type C, Type I or Type II exit installed on an aeroplane with seating for more than 80 passengers, an assist space is provided at one side of the passageway regardless of whether an assist means is required by paragraph (a) of this section; and

(D) for each Type C, Type I or Type II exit, an assist space is provided at one side of the passageway if an assist means is required by paragraph (a) of this section;

(iv) each Type III and Type IV emergency exit is accessible from the main aisle. The access from the main aisle to these exits must not be obstructed by seats, berths, or other protrusions in a manner that would reduce the effectiveness of the exit. In addition,

(A) for an aeroplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to January 1, 1958, the access meets the emergency exit access requirements of subsection 25.813(c) of Part 25, Title 14, of the Code of Federal Regulations of the United States, in the version in effect on April 30, 1972 or after that date;

(B) for an aeroplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on January 1, 1958 or after that date and prior to June 4, 1992, the access meets the emergency exit access requirements of subsection 25.813(c) of Part 25, Title 14, of the Code of Federal Regulations of the United States, in the version in effect on June 3, 1992 or after that date; or

(C) for an aeroplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on June 4, 1992 or after that date, the access meets the emergency exit access requirements under which the aeroplane was certificated;

(v) each assist space has at least one handle located to enable the crew member to steady himself or herself while assisting passengers during an evacuation;

(vi) if it is necessary to pass through a passageway between passenger compartments to reach any required emergency exit from any seat in the passenger cabin, the passageway must not be obstructed. However, curtains may be used if they allow free entry through the passageway;

(vii) no door may be installed in any partition between passenger compartments;

(viii) an aeroplane manufactured after November 27, 2006 must not incorporate a door installed between any passenger seat occupiable for take-off and landing and any passenger emergency exit, such that the door crosses any egress path (including aisles, cross aisles and passageways); and

(ix) if it is necessary to pass through a doorway separating any seat (except those seats on the flight deck), occupiable for takeoff and landing, from an emergency exit, the door has a means to latch it in the open position and the door is latched open prior to movement of the aeroplane on the surface, takeoff and landing. The latching means shall be able to withstand the loads imposed upon it when the door is subjected to the ultimate inertia forces, relative to the surrounding structure, listed in subsection 525.561(b) of the Airworthiness Manual.

(h) Each emergency exit that is required to be openable from the outside, and its means of opening, is marked on the outside of the aeroplane. The marking shall meet the following, as applicable:

(i) the outside marking for each passenger emergency exit on the side of the fuselage includes a 2-inch coloured band outlining the exit;

(ii) each outside marking including the band, shall have colour contrast to be readily distinguishable from the surrounding fuselage surface. The contrast shall be such that if the reflectance of the darker colour is 15 percent or less, the reflectance of the lighter colour shall be at least 45 percent. “Reflectance” is the ratio of the luminous flux reflected by a body to the luminous flux it receives. When the reflectance of the darker colour is greater than 15 percent, at least a 30 percent difference between its reflectance and the reflectance of the lighter colour shall be provided; and

(iii) for exits other than those on the side of the fuselage, such as ventral or tail cone exits, the external means of opening, including instructions if applicable, is conspicuously marked in red, or bright chrome yellow if the background colour is such that red is inconspicuous. When the opening means is located on only one side of the fuselage, a conspicuous marking to that effect is provided on the other side.

(i) Each passenger-carrying aeroplane is equipped with exterior emergency lighting and a slip resistant escape route that meets the following requirements:

(i) for an aeroplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed prior to May 1, 1972, the requirements of subsections 25.803(e), 25.812(f) and 25.812(g) of Part 25, Title 14, of the Code of Federal Regulations of the United States, in the version in effect on April 30, 1972 or after that date; or

(ii) for an aeroplane for which the application for the type certificate was filed on May 1, 1972 or after that date, the exterior emergency lighting and slip resistant escape route requirements under which the aeroplane was type certificated.

(j) Each floor-level door or exit on the side of the fuselage (other than those leading into a cargo or baggage compartment that is not accessible from the passenger cabin) that is 44 or more inches high and 20 or more inches wide, but not wider than 46 inches, each passenger ventral exit and each tail cone exit meets the requirements of paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (f), and (g) of this section for floor level emergency exits.

(k) Emergency exits in the passenger cabin that are in excess of the minimum number of required emergency exits meet all of the applicable provisions of this section, except subparagraphs (g)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section, and are readily accessible.

(l) Each ventral exit and tailcone exit for each large passenger-carrying aeroplane is:

(i) designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight; and

(ii) marked with a placard readable from a distance of 30 inches and installed at a conspicuous location near the means of opening the exit, stating that the exit has been designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight.

(m) Except for an aeroplane having an emergency exit configuration installed and in operation before October 16, 1987, for an aeroplane that is required to have more than one passenger emergency exit for each side of the fuselage, no passenger emergency exit shall be more than 60 feet from any adjacent passenger emergency exit on the same side of the same deck of the fuselage, as measured parallel to the aeroplanes longitudinal axis between the nearest exit edges.

(n) Each emergency exit on an aeroplane manufactured after November 26, 2007 has a means to retain the exit in the open position, once the exit is opened in an emergency. The means shall not require separate action to engage when the exit is opened, and shall require positive action to disengage.

(o) Each passenger and flight attendant seat on a passenger-carrying aeroplane manufactured after January 1, 2019 meets the requirements of section 525.562 of the Airworthiness Manual in the version in effect on January 1, 1989 or after that date.

(p) The compartment interiors occupied by passengers and crew members on a passenger-carrying aeroplane manufactured after September 2, 2016 meet the flammability requirements of paragraph 525.853(d) of the Airworthiness Manual in the version in effect on September 30, 1996 or after that date.

(q) For a passenger-carrying aeroplane that was issued a type certificate on January 1, 1958 or after that date, interior components that are replaced in compartments occupied by passengers and crew members after September 2, 2016 meet the flammability requirements of paragraph 525.853(d) of the Airworthiness Manual in the version in effect on September 30, 1996 or after that date.

(r) For a passenger-carrying aeroplane that was issued a type certificate before January 1, 1958, interior components that are replaced in compartments occupied by passengers and crew members after September 2, 2016 meet the flammability requirements of section 25.853 of Part 25, Title 14, of the Code of Federal Regulations of the United States, in the version in effect on April 30, 1972 or the flammability requirements of paragraph 525.853(d) of the Airworthiness Manual in the version in effect on September 30, 1996 or after that date.

(s) The thermal/acoustic insulation materials installed in an aeroplane that was issued a type certificate on January 1, 1958 or after that date meet the following:

(i) for an aeroplane manufactured on September 2, 2016 or before that date, materials installed in the fuselage as replacements after September 2, 2016 meet the flame propagation test requirements of paragraph 525.856(a) of the Airworthiness Manual in the version in effect on June 8, 2004 or after that date, if the replacement materials are:

(A) of a blanket construction; or

(B) installed around air ducting;

(ii) for an aeroplane manufactured after September 2, 2016, the flame propagation test requirements of paragraph 525.856(a) of the Airworthiness Manual in the version in effect on June 8, 2004 or after that date; and

(iii) for an aeroplane manufactured after September 2, 2016, the flame penetration resistance requirements of paragraph 525.856(b) of the Airworthiness Manual in the version in effect on June 8, 2004 or after that date.

Standard Formation for Flight Dispatcher Specific Training - Required Content

		Proficiency level for:
Subject		Initial	Recurrent
1.0	Air Law
1.1	Canadian Aviation Regulations	4
1.2	Commercial Air Service Standards for Airline Operations	4
1.3	FAR’s	3
1.4	Foreign Regulations (if applicable)	4	4
2.0	Provisions of Air Operator Certificate
2.1	Operations Specifications	4	4
3.0	Publications
3.1	Canadian AIP	5	5
3.2	Canada Flight Supplement		5
3.3	Flight Information Publications	5	5
3.4	MANOPS	5	5
3.5	Foreign AIP’s	3	3
3.6	MMEL/MEL	5
3.7	Designated Airspace Handbook		3
3.8	Foreign Operations Specifications	5	5
3.9	Air Almanac (Sunrise, Sunset)	3
4.0	Company Operations Manual
4.1	C.O.M. Content and Role	3	3
5.0	Theory of Meteorology
5.1	Low Level Wind Shear/Microbursts		5
5.2	Thunderstorms	5
5.3	Tropical Weather	5
5.4	Desert Weather	5
5.5	Volcanic Activity	5	5
6.0	Meteorological Information
6.1	Satellite Imagery	4
6.2	Radar Meteorology	4
6.3	Drawing a Weather Map		4
6.4	Weather Nomenclature and Terms	5
7.0	Applied Meteorology Dispatch Applications
7.1	Briefing Flight Crews	4
7.2	Destination and Alternate Weather Minima	4	4
8.0	Facilities
8.1	Air Operator’s Facilities	4	4
8.2	Security	3	3
8.3	Aerodrome Services	3
8.4	Ground Visual Aids		3
9.0	Communications
9.1	Language Terminology		5
9.2	Communications Networks	5
9.3	Emergency Frequency Procedures		5
10.0	Aeroplanes
10.1	Hydraulics	3
10.2	Electrics	3
10.3	A/C and Pressurization	3
10.4	Emergency Equipment	3
10.5	De-Icing/Anti-icing Systems	3
10.6	Fire Detection Systems	3
10.7	Fuel Systems	3
10.8	Weight and Balance Control Procedures	4
10.9	Avionics	3
10.10	Aeroplane Performance (including wet, dry, and contaminated runways)	5	5
10.11	Aeroplane Performance Enroute	5	5
10.12	Aeroplane Type Transition Training (per type)		4
11.0	Air Navigation
11.1	Navigation - Short-Range Flights		4
11.2	Navigation - Long-Range Flights		4
11.3	Precision Instrument Approach Procedures	3
11.4	Non-Precision Instrument Procedures	3
12.0	ATC Procedures
12.1	ATC Responsibilities		5
12.2	Separation Procedures		4
12.3	Special Procedures	4
12.4	Take-off Procedures	4	4
12.5	Departure/SID		4
12.6	Arrivals/STAR/Profile Descent	4
12.7	Landing Procedures	4	4
12.8	Flow Management	4
12.9	Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS)	3
13.0	Dispatch Procedures
13.1	Airworthiness and Maintenance	4
13.2	MEL Procedures	5	5
13.3	Weather Analysis	4	4
13.4	NOTAM Procedures	4
13.5	Operational Flight Plan	5	5
13.6	Release Procedures	5
13.7	Re-Release Procedures	5	5
13.8	ETOPS	5	5
13.9	Briefing Elements	5	5
13.10	Flight Watch Procedures	5	5
13.11	Diversion Operations	5	5
13.12	Shift Turnover	5	5
13.13	Deployed Operations (off-line)	5	5
13.14	Computer Systems	5
13.15	Abnormal Operations (gear down, ferry, etc.)	5	5
13.16	Aeroplane Surface Contamination	5	5
13.17	Dangerous Goods	4	4
13.18	Economic Advantages/Disadvantages	5
13.19	Dispatcher Authority and Responsibility	5
13.20	Use of Hand-Held Computer (e.g., CR or E6B)	4	4
13.21	Human Factors (CRM, DRM)	4
14.0	Emergency Procedures
14.1	Pilot Functions	3
14.2	Flight Dispatch Functions	5	5
14.3	Air Operator’s Emergency Plan	5	5
14.4	Communications	5	5
14.5	ATC Procedures	5	5
14.6	ERS Procedures	5	5
14.7	Search and Rescue	4
14.8	Security Measures on the Ground	5	5
14.9	Security Measures in Flight	5	5

Schedule I - Pilot Proficiency Check (Ppc) - Synthetic Training Device

Content last revised: 2005/06/01

(1) Pre-flight Phase

Flight Planning and Equipment Examination

(a) Flight planning and equipment examinations are not mandatory when there are, in the training records, written examinations from initial or annual training for which the validity period has not expired.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(b) Flight planning shall include a practical examination on the crew's knowledge of air operator's approved Standard Operating Procedures and the Aeroplane Flight Manual including aeroplane and runway performance charts, and weight and balance procedures.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(c) The equipment examination shall consist of a display of practical knowledge of the airframe, engine, major components and systems including the normal, abnormal and emergency operating procedures and limitations relating thereto.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(2) Flight Phase

(a) Taxiing

(i) the use of the taxiing check list; and

(ii) taxiing in compliance with clearances and instructions issued by the person conducting the pilot proficiency check;

(iii) where a second-in-command is undergoing the pilot proficiency check, outlined above to the extent practicable from the second-in-command position.

(b) Engine Checks

Engine checks shall be conducted as appropriate to the aeroplane type.

(i) One normal take-off to be performed in accordance with the Airplane Flight Manual;

(ii) an instrument take-off in the minimum visibility approved for the air operator;

(iii) a take-off in a minimum of a 10 kt crosswind component;

NOTE:

Any or all of the above takeoffs may be combined.

(iv) a take off with failure of the critical engine at a speed greater than V1 and at an altitude of less than 50 feet AGL; or at a speed as close as possible to, but greater than V1 when V1 and V2, or V1 and Vr are identical; and
(amended 2005/06/01)

(v) a rejected take-off from a speed not less than 90% of the calculated V1 or as appropriate to the aeroplane type.

(d) Instrument Procedures

Instrument procedures shall consist of IFR pre-flight preparations, terminal and enroute procedures, arrival and departure procedures, system malfunctions and where applicable, the proper programming and use of Flight Management Systems, (as applicable).

(i) An area departure and an area arrival procedures shall be performed where the crew:

(A) adheres to air traffic control clearances and instructions; and

(B) properly uses the available navigation equipment and facilities;

(ii) a holding procedure;

(iii) at least two instrument approaches performed in accordance with procedures and limitations in the Canada Air Pilot or in the equivalent foreign publication, or approved company approach procedure for the facility used. One of the approaches shall be a precision approach, and one a non precision approach; and

(iv) one approach and manoeuvre to land using a scene approved for circling where the air operator is authorized for approaches at the published circling minima, and is required during initial qualification check and annually thereafter.

(e) Manoeuvres

(i) At least one steep turn in each direction with a bank angle of 45° and a change in heading of at least 180° but not more than 360°.

(ii) Approaches to stalls

For the purpose of this manoeuvre the required approach to a stall is reached when there is a perceptible buffet or other response to the initial stall entry.

The following approaches to the stall are required during initial and upgrade PPC's:

(A) one in the take-off configuration, except where a zero-flap take-off configuration is normally used in that model and type of aeroplane;

(B) one in a clean configuration; and

(C) one in a landing configuration;

One of the approaches to stall shall be performed while in a turn with a bank angle of between 15° and 30°;

(iii) Steep turns and approach to stalls are not required if the PPC is conducted via either a LOFT scenario, a scripted PPC or on a fly-by wire aeroplane, and
(amended 1998/03/23; )

(A) for an initial PPC on aeroplane, type, steep turns and approach to stalls have been satisfactorily demonstrated during initial training;
(amended 1998/03/23; )

(B) for a semi-annual or an annual PPC if:
(amended 1998/03/23; )

(I) steep turns and approach to stalls are required in the applicable annual training syllabus and they have been satisfactorily demonstrated during this training; or
(amended 1998/03/23; )

(II) steep turns and approach to stalls are not required in the applicable annual training syllabus.
(amended 1998/03/23; )

(f) Landings and Approaches to Landings

(i) one normal landing;

(ii) one landing from an approach in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) not greater than the minimum recommended for the approach;

(iii) one crosswind landing with a minimum of a 10 kt crosswind component;

(iv) one landing and manoeuvre to that landing with, depending on aeroplane type, engine failure as follows:
(amended 1998/09/01)

(A) for a two engine aeroplane, failure of one engine;

(B) for a three engine aeroplane, failure of the center engine combined with the failure of one outboard engine for the pilot-in-command, and failure of one outboard engine only for other than the pilot-in-command;

(C) for a four engine aeroplane, failure of two engines on the same side for the pilot-in-command and, failure of one outboard engine only for other than the pilot-in-command.

For three and four engine aeroplanes, the pilot-in-command is required to perform a two engine inoperative procedure during the initial qualification check and annually thereafter.

(v) one rejected landing and one missed approach. For the purposes of the rejected landing the landing shall be rejected at a height of approximately 50 feet when the aeroplane is approximately over the runway threshold. The rejected landing may be combined with a missed approach;
(amended 2005/06/01)

(vi) one Category II or Category III approach where these procedures are authorized in an air operator certificate. Required during the initial qualification flight and annually thereafter:
(amended 1998/09/01)

(A) where CAT II approaches are authorized in the air operator certificate, the following is required:

(I) for a pilot-in-command initial qualification:

- one CAT II ILS approach during which a practical emergency is introduced aimed at assessing crew co-ordination in decision making and the resultant missed approach; and

- a second CAT II ILS approach to a landing in CAT II weather minima;

(II) for a pilot-in-command requalification on CAT II approaches:

- at least one CAT II ILS approach to a landing annually.

(B) where CAT II and CAT III approaches are authorized in the air operator certificate, the following is required:

(I) for a pilot-in-command initial qualification:

- one CAT II ILS approach during which a practical emergency is introduced aimed at assessing crew co-ordination in decision making and the resultant missed approach; and

- a CAT III ILS approach conducted to a landing in CAT III weather minima;

(II) for a pilot-in-command requalification on CAT II and CAT III approaches:

- successive 6 month PPCs in an approved simulator will alternate CAT II and CAT III renewal checks;

(vii) one landing without the use of an auto-land system.

NOTE:

Any of the landings and approaches to landings specified in this section may be combined. A minimum of two landings are required.

(g) Normal Procedures

The crew shall demonstrate use of as many of the air operator's approved Standard Operating Procedures, and normal procedures as are necessary to confirm that the crew has the knowledge and ability to properly use installed equipment, (auto-pilot and hand flown manoeuvres as appropriate).

(h) Abnormal and Emergency Procedures

(i) The crew shall demonstrate use of as many of the air operator's approved Standard Operating Procedures and abnormal and emergency procedures for as many of the situations as are necessary to confirm that the crew has an adequate knowledge and ability to perform these procedures.

(ii) systems malfunctions shall consist of a selection adequate to determine that the crew has satisfactory knowledge and ability to safely handle malfunctions.

(iii) at least two simulated engine failures, excluding failures on the runway followed by a rejected take-off, at any time during the check.

(i) Where the PPC is conducted following initial training in a level A or B training program, the following flight checking is required within 30 days after the PPC in a synthetic training device and may be run concurrent with the flight training requirements on the aeroplane type in the applicable training program:
(amended 1998/03/23)

(i) interior and exterior aeroplane pre-flight checks;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(ii) ground handling for pilots-in-command;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(iii) normal take-off, visual circuit (where possible) and landing;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(iv) a simulated engine failure procedure after take-off (at safe altitude and airspeed);
(amended 1998/03/23)

(v) a simulated engine inoperative landing; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(vi) a normal missed approach.
(amended 1998/03/23)

Schedule II - Pilot Proficiency Check (Ppc) - Aeroplane

Content last revised: 1998/03/23

(1) Pre-flight Phase

(a) Flight Planning and Equipment Examination

(i) Flight planning and equipment examinations are not mandatory when there are, in the training records, written examinations from initial or annual training for which the validity period has not expired.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(ii) Flight planning shall include a practical examination on the pilot's knowledge of standard operating procedures and the Aeroplane Flight Manual including performance charts, loading, weight and balance and Flight Manual Supplements.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(iii) The equipment examination shall show a practical knowledge of the airframe, engine, major components and systems including the normal, abnormal, and emergency operating procedures and limitations relating thereto.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(b) Aeroplane Inspection

(i) A pre-flight aeroplane inspection that includes:

(A) a visual inspection of the exterior and interior of the aeroplane, locating each item to be inspected and explaining the purpose of the inspection;

(B) the proper use of the pre-start, start and pre-taxi check lists; and

(C) checks of the appropriate radio communications, navigation and electronic equipment and selection of the appropriate communications and navigation frequencies prior to flight.

(2) Flight Phase

(a) Taxiing

(i) taxiing procedures;

(ii) a taxiing check including:

(A) the use of the taxiing check list; and

(B) taxiing in compliance with clearances and instructions issued by the appropriate air traffic control unit or by the person conducting the pilot proficiency check;

(C) where a second-in-command is undergoing the pilot proficiency check, the taxiing check outlined above to the extent practicable from the second-in-command position.

(b) Engine Checks

Engine checks shall be conducted as appropriate to the aeroplane type.

(i) One normal take-off to be performed in accordance with the Airplane Flight Manual or where the aeroplane is a turbo-jet, a noise abatement take-off performed in accordance with the Airplane Flight Manual (where applicable) and the Canada Air Pilot.

(ii) An instrument take-off performed in the same manner as the normal take-off except that instrument flight rules are simulated at or before reaching an altitude of 200 feet above the airport elevation.

(iii) Where practicable under existing meteorological, airport or airport traffic conditions, one crosswind take-off performed in accordance with the aeroplane operating manual where applicable;

NOTE:

Any or all of the above takeoffs may be combined.

(iv) a simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude and airspeed) appropriate to the aeroplane type under the prevailing conditions.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(v) a rejected take-off explained by the candidate prior to the flight.

(d) Instrument Procedures

Instrument procedures shall consist of IFR pre-flight preparation, departure and enroute procedures, terminal procedures and system malfunction:

(i) an area departure and an area arrival procedure shall be performed where the pilot:

(A) adheres to actual or simulated air traffic control clearances and instructions; and

(B) properly uses the available navigation facilities;

(ii) a holding procedure;

(iii) at least two instrument approaches performed in accordance with procedures and limitations in the Canada Air Pilot or the equivalent foreign publication, or approved company approach procedure for the approach facility used. Where practicable one of the approaches shall be a precision approach and one a non- precision approach;

(iv) a circling approach, where the air operator is authorized for circling minima below ceiling 1000 feet and 3 miles ground visibility, except where local conditions beyond the control of the pilot prevent a circling approach from being performed.

(e) In Flight Manoeuvres

(i) at least one steep turn in each direction with a bank angle of 45° and a change in heading of at least 180° but not more than 360°;

(ii) Recoveries from Impending or Full Stalls

For the purpose of this manoeuvre the required recovery from a stall is initiated when there is a perceptible buffet or other response to the initial stall entry. When performed in an aeroplane the approach to stalls shall be conducted at an altitude of at least 5000 feet AGL, and if conducted above cloud at an altitude of at least 2000 feet above the cloud tops.

The following recoveries from impending or full stalls are required during initial and upgrade PPC's:

(A) one in the take-off configuration, except where a zero-flap take-off configuration is normally used in that model and type of aeroplane;

(B) one in a clean configuration; and

(C) one in a landing configuration;

One of the recoveries from impending or full stall may be performed while in a turn with a bank angle of between 15° and 30°;

(f) Landings and Approaches to Landings

(i) one normal landing which shall, where practicable, be conducted without external or internal glideslope information;

(ii) one landing from an instrument approach, and where prevailing conditions prevent an actual landing, an approach to a point where a landing could have been made;

(iii) one cross wind landing where practicable under existing meteorological, airport and airport traffic conditions;

(iv) one landing and manoeuvring to that landing with a simulated failure of 50 percent of the available engines which shall be on one side of the aeroplane for the pilot-in-command and on outboard engine only for other than the pilot-in-command. Where the aeroplane type is a three engine aeroplane, the loss of power shall be an outboard engine and the centre engine for the pilot-in-command and on outboard engine for other than the pilot-in-command. For three- and four-engined aeroplanes the pilot-in-command is required to perform a two-engine inoperative procedure during initial qualification check and annually thereafter;

(v) one landing under simulated circling approach conditions except that where prevailing conditions prevent a landing, an approach to a point where a landing could have been made;

NOTE:

Any of the landings and approaches to landings specified in this section may be combined. A minimum of two landings are required.

(h) Abnormal and Emergency Procedures

(i) The crew shall demonstrate use of as many of the air operator's approved Standard Operating Procedures and abnormal and emergency procedures for as many of the emergency situations as is necessary to confirm that the crew has an adequate knowledge and ability to perform these procedures;

(ii) System malfunctions shall consist of a selection adequate to determine that the crew has satisfactory knowledge and ability to safely handle malfunctions;

(iii) at least two simulated engine failures any time during the check

Schedule III - Pilot Proficiency Check (Ppc) - Cruise Relief Pilot (Crp)

Content last revised: 1998/03/234

(1) Flight Planning and Equipment Examination

(b) Flight planning shall include the CRP's knowledge of the air operator's Standard Operating Procedures and the Aeroplane Flight Manual.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(c) The equipment examination shall consist of a display of practical knowledge of the aeroplane systems including normal, abnormal and emergency operating procedures.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(2) Aeroplane Manoeuvres

(a) climb and descent shall be demonstrated as well as climbing and descending turns;

(b) steep turns shall be demonstrated;

(d) manoeuvring the aeroplane at minimum and maximum speeds (mach) at optimum altitude;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(e) auto-pilot use shall be demonstrated, including during normal climb and descent and turbulence; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(f) steep turns and approach to stalls are not required if the PPC is conducted via either a LOFT scenario, a scripted PPC or on a fly-by-wire aeroplane; and
(amended 1998/03/23)

(i) for an initial PPC on aeroplane type, steep turns and approach to stalls have been satisfactorily demonstrated during initial training;
(amended 1998/03/23)

(ii) for a semi-annual PPC if:
(amended 1998/03/23)

(A) steep turns and approach to stalls are required in the applicable annual training syllabus and they have been satisfactorily demonstrated during this training; or
(amended 1998/03/23)

(B) steep turns and approaches to stalls are not required in the applicable annual training syllabus.
(amended 1998/03/23)

(3) Normal procedures

The CRP shall demonstrate use of as many of the air operator's approved Standard Operating procedures and normal procedures for installed systems, devices and aids as are necessary to confirm that the CRP has the knowledge and ability to properly use installed equipment.

(4) Abnormal and Emergency Procedures

The CRP shall demonstrate use of as many of the air operator's Standard Operating Procedures and abnormal and emergency procedures for as many of the emergency situations relating to cruise flight as are necessary to confirm that the CRP has an adequate knowledge and ability to perform these procedures.

(5) Instrument Rating Renewal

All of the manoeuvres required to satisfy renewal of an Instrument Rating shall be part of the proficiency check.

Standard 725 - Airline Operations - Aeroplanes - Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs)

Table of contents

Foreword

Division I - General

Definitions

Division II - Certification

725.07 Issuance or Amendment of Air Operator Certificate

(1) Application for an Air Operator Certificate

(2) Qualifications and Responsibilities of Managerial Personnel

(3) Emergency Response Plan

(4) Operational Support Services and Equipment

725.08 Contents of Air Operator Certificate

(1) Minimum Performance Capability for Long Range Area Navigation System

(2) Authorizations

(3) Instrument Approaches - Global Positioning System (GPS)

(4) Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) Approaches

Division III - Flight Operations

725.16 Exceptions

Briefing to Persons on Board

725.20 Operational Control System

General

Definitions

Application

Systems Description

725.22 Operational Flight Plan

725.25 Fuel Requirements

725.29 Flight Crew Members at Controls

725.31 Crew Member Briefing

725.34 Take-off Minima

725.35 No Alternate Aerodrome - IFR Flight

725.37 Routes in Uncontrolled Airspace

725.39 Weight and Balance Control

725.40 Passenger and Cabin Safety Procedures

725.41 Flight Attendant Stations

725.42 Carry-on Baggage

725.43 Briefing of Passengers

725.44 Safety Features Card and Supplemental Briefing Card

725.48 Instrument Approach Procedures

Division IV - Aeroplane Performance Operating Limitations

725.54 Exceptions

Division V - Aeroplane Equipment Requirements

725.81 Cargo and Baggage Compartment Fire Protection

Division VI - Emergency Equipment

725.90 Deleted

725.91 Emergency Medical Kit

725.95 Deleted

Division VII - Personnel Requirements

725.106 Pilot Qualifications

725.107 Flight Engineer and Second Officer Qualifications

725.108 Crew Pairing

725.111 Route and Aerodrome Qualifications

725.113 Validity Period

Division VIII - Training

725.124 Training Program

Standard Formation for Flight Dispatcher Specific Training - Required Content

725.125 Conditional Approval of Training Program

725.126 Cabin Emergency Evacuation Trainer

Division IX - Manuals

725.135 Contents of Company Operations Manual

725.137 Aircraft Operating Manual

725.138 Standard Operating Procedures (SOP's)

Division XI - Interference with a Crew Member

Preventing and Managing Incidents of Interference with a Crew Member

Reporting Incidents of Interference with a Crew Member

Division XII – Flight Attendants and Emergency Evacuation

725.203 Emergency Features

Standard Formation for Flight Dispatcher Specific Training - Required Content

Schedule I - Pilot Proficiency Check (Ppc) - Synthetic Training Device

Schedule II - Pilot Proficiency Check (Ppc) - Aeroplane

Schedule III - Pilot Proficiency Check (Ppc) - Cruise Relief Pilot (Crp)